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A1 PASSERS TRAINING, RESEARCH, REVIEW AND DEVELOPMENT COMPANY COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING SET 1 PRINCIPLES AND STANDARDS O

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A1 PASSERS TRAINING, RESEARCH, REVIEW AND DEVELOPMENT COMPANY COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING SET 1

PRINCIPLES AND STANDARDS OF CHN Situation: CHN theories and major concepts 1. Obstacles to Winslow’s birth rights of health and longevity are the following except; a. Mispriorities of the government c. Primary health care b. Globalization d. Privatization 2. The main concept of Hanlon is total development which pertains to; a. Amorphism c. Dualism b. Essentialism d. Holism 3. Purlom’s concept of public health practice pertains to these phrases of human development; a. Infancy and childhood c. Mid and late adulthood b. Adolescence and young adulthood d. All phases of development 4. The highest of Freeman’s definition of CHN is; a. Developing a social machinery c. Organized communities b. Enhancing capabilities of people d. Singly as individual group 5. Most implicit in CHN is the application of this process; a. Nursing process c. Problem-solving process b. Research process d. Community organizing process e. f. Situation: CHN Principles 6. Considered as vital parts of CHN practice includes; a. Health education and counseling c. Health and longevity b. Social mobilization and justice d. Struggle against poverty 7. To ensure competent practice and quality care, nurses must; a. Attend seminars, symposia and fora c. Conduct/participate in research b. Go on graduate studies d. Practice nursing 8. In collaborate relations among the members of the health team, the nurse usually performs this role; a. Secretary of the team c. Organizer of socials b. Property custodian d. Coordinator of services 9. Indigenous community resources while the CH nurse can utilize are the following except; a. Ventusa or dry cupping c. Traditional hilots b. Microsoft word d. Herbal medicine 10. Respecting values, customs, and beliefs of people require which of the following actions? a. Awareness training c. Discouraging harmful practices b. Income-generating projects d. Collaborative practices e. f. Situation: The application of CHN concepts and processes. 11. Which of the following statements is not correct? a. As part of participation to policy formulation, the nurse plays an active role in lobbying for amendments to the nursing law. b. In the community, the nurse raises the level of awareness of the people to identify existing problems and potentials to address such problems. c. If the people of the community want free medicines, the nurse complies as the basis of services should be on the people’s needs. d. If may of the trained community health workers resigned, the nurse has to start all over again and never gives up. 12. Which of the following statement is correct? a. If people are not attending to the services offered by the health staff, the team must re-assess the needs of the people. b. In participatory approach, the nurse must devotedly adhere to what people want. c. In a pleasant community where the people are fighting for land ownership, the nurse must not participate as this is not a health concern. d. Nurses must not join protect actions as nurses must be neutral at all times. 13. People have the potential for changing their behavior. This means; a. One cannot teach old dogs new tricks. b. Apathy and passivity cannot be addressed as these are defense mechanisms developed by people themselves. c. Education and training are meant to increase awareness towards responsible action. d. Social offenders must always be watched out as they have the tendency to revert to their former selves. 14. If a particular health service falls, the most basic situation is; a. Is this what the people demanded? c. Is this what people need? b. What went wrong? d. Who is responsible for the failure? 15. In a meeting with the people’s organization in the community, the nurse was asked regarding her position on gambling and usury. The most appropriate response is; a. As long as people do not harm others, it is okay b. Gambling and usury are part of Filipino culture so let them be c. Gambling, yes, usury, no d. Consider other forms of recreation and economic resources 16. 17. Situation: Knowledge of the concepts and processes of CHN is important. 18. The concern of the CH nurse is not only those who go to the center but also those who do not. What is the reason for this? a. Determine the reasons why people who do not go to the center. b. Identify health needs of people who do not come.

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c. Define the needs and problems of those who come. d. Ensure that CH services are comprehensive. Which of the following statements is correct? a. Cognizant of the devolution of health services, decision-making on health affairs should be made by the office of the mayor at the municipal level. b. Given the community, the nurse can uplift the situation by herself. c. Health illness have the same meanings in a homogenous community d. While health is the responsibility of the health department, it is as much as the responsibility of the people, as well To facilitate implementation of a CHN project, the following are to be considered except; a. Clear tasks and responsibilities c. Specific objectives with measurable output b. Limited involvement of community d. Available materials and supply members When promoting the health of an individual, family and community, the first step to take by the CH nurse is to; a. Establish a registry of families c. Do a health assessment b. Conduct a community census d. Organize the community The nurse makes a continuous appraisal for the care she provides for the community in relation to the objectives of care and response of the community. This process is called community health a. Assessment b. Diagnosis c. Participation d. Evaluation

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A1 PASSERS TRAINING, RESEARCH, REVIEW AND

23. 24. SITUATION: Nurse Joy is the new PHN in her municipality. She just had her license and is very excited about her new job. 21. As a nurse, Joy knows very well that she can perform all of the following except: a.Conduct lectures on the importance of prenatal visits to all pregnant women. b.Perform Leopold’s maneuver in the home setting. c. Assist in home deliveries d.Suture 2nd degree lacerations during home deliveries 22. As a PHN, Joy knows that one of the following statements is not true. Which one is it? a.All public health nurses are employed by the government b.All community health nurses are employed by the government c. All community health nurses provide care in the community setting d.All public health nurses provide care in public health settings 23. When asked, nurse Joy identified the following as the patient of the community nurse: a.Individual c. Population group b.Family d. Community 24. Nurse Joy quoted C.E. Winslow when she said that her job also deals with applying her knowledge of the “Science and art of preventing disease, prolonging life, promoting health to enable every citizen to realize his birthright to health and longevity.” This statement is C.E.Winslow’s definition of ______________ a.Public health c. Community health b.Public health nursing d. Community health nursing 25. Nurse Joy knows that only one of the following statements is correct. Which is it? a. In CHN, the client is considered as passive recipient of care, not an active partner. b. The goal of CHN is achieved through sectoral efforts c. CHN practice is affected by developmental in health technology, in particular and changes in society in general. d. CHN is independent from the health care system and the larger human services system 26. 27. SITUATION: Simonette is the PHN in the municipality of Rizal. As a PHN, she assumes different roles, depending on the client needs. In the month of August, she noticed that there has been a rising incidence of diarrhea for a month in the young children in her municipality. The situation called for her to control the spread of the health problem. 28. Simonette conducts a mother’s class to discuss the importance of boiling water to make it safe for drinking. Which among the following role is she performing? a. Clinician c. Leader b. Health educator d. Researcher 29. Simonette organized a group of young adults and teenagers to help clean up the garbage near the community’s water source. Which among the following is she performing? a. Clinician c. Leader b. Health educator d. Researcher 30. When Simonette instructed the community people and the health workers to continuously report the cases of diarrhea and the midwives to properly document the cases, she was performing her role as a? a. Clinician c. Leader b. Health educator d. Researcher 31. During the home visits, Simonette identified cases of severe dehydration among children and immediately referred them to the district hospital. Which among of the following roles is she performing? a. Clinician c. Leader b. Health educator d. Researcher 32. Which among the following roles transcends all dimensions of nursing?

a. Clinician b. Health educator

c. Leader d. Researcher

e. f. g. h. SITUATION: Kris, Kath, Karen and Kelly are new community health nurses. 33. Kris is responsible for providing immunization to factory workers in a factory for canned foods. What field of CHN is Kris in? a. Community Mental Health Nursing c. School Health nursing b. Occupational Health Nursing d. None of the above 34. Kath organized health education classes on human sexuality among the first year high school students in her workplace. What field of CHN is Kath in? a. Community Mental Health Nursing c. School Health Nursing b. Occupational Health Nursing d. None of the above 35. Konnie recommended to the administration that the employees be provided with personal protective equipments. What field of CHN is Konnie in? a. Community Mental Health Nursing c. School Health Nursing b. Occupational Health Nursing d. None of the above 36. Karen organized a lecture discussion on the prevention of substance abuse among the out of school youth in her workplace. What field of CHN is Karen in? a. Community Mental Health Nursing c. School Health Nursing b. Occupational Health Nursing d. None of the above 37. Kelly organized the clean – up of stagnant canals and disposal of uncovered water receptacles in the school to prevent dengue. What field of CHN is Kelly in? a. Community Mental Health Nursing c. School Health Nursing b. Occupational Health Nursing d. None of the above e. f. Situation: You are assigned as a PHN in the RHU I of the Municipality of Liwayway. 38. Your responsibilities include the following except: a. Participate in the implementation and evaluation of the municipal health plan for the year 2012 b. Participate in the anti – insurgency drive of the military in your municipality c. Organize trainings on the standards for hypertension detection and BP taking for midwives d. Organize anti – rabies immunizations for the dogs in the municipality 39. Your roles include the following except; a. Care provider c. Epidemiologist b. Collaborator d. Budget officer 40. Related to patient care, your tasks include the following except: a. Administer streptomycin (IM) to category II PTB patients b. Insert the NGT since it is available in the home setting and provide ORS to a severely dehydrated child before referral c. Close a 4 inch cut by suturing it after local infiltration with anesthesia d. Cleanse a stage 2 decubitus ulcer in a bedridden patient in the home setting 41. You know very well that you should organize activities in the areas of ________. a. Health promotion c. Rehabilitation b. Disease prevention d. All of the above

42. In terms of educational preparation, a PHN should have __________. a. A BS Nursing degree b. A BS nursing degree and must be a registered nurse c. A BS Nursing Degree, be a registered nurse and masteral units d. A BS Nursing Degree, be a registered nurse, and masteral degree. 43. 44. Situation: The community health nurse must be adept with the concepts of Community Health Nursing. 45. The community is an integral part of any given society. This means the following except: a. Community problems are often reflections of society problems. b. Culture shapes peoples as people shapes culture. c. A community can become self-reliant while an adjacent one is not. d. Societal factors may have direct effects on the community situation. 46. The community is always in a state of continuous movement and change. This means that; a. Change in the community is inherent. b. After a particular period of time, a community’s situation becomes predictable. c. The condition in the community is static. d. Traditional interventions are always applicable at any given time and situation. 47. If the condition in the community is always changing, it is necessary to: a. Isolate community problems from societal problems. b. Develop a community health plan. c. Identify sources of conflicts in the community. d. Continuously assess community situations. 48. The Community Health Nurse recognizes the role of community leaders because: a. The nurse as a leader can dictate the people. b. Leadership is born out of love for people. c. Community members are dependent on their leaders. d. Community participation must be upheld at all times. 49. The Community Health services provided by the nurse must be based on: a. Needs and problems identified by the nurse b. The identified needs on community diagnosis c. Plan of action d. Objectives of the plan 50. 51. Situation: Responsibilities of a Community Health Nurse 46. The nurse actively participates in the development of the community health plan in order to: a. Represent the community in the health team b. Impress the other members of the planning phase of the nursing process c. Ensure that there is a nursing component in any health undertaking d. See to it that the steps in the planning phase are carried out 47. What is the basic purpose of research in CHN? a. Sources of funds and other resources c. Improvement of health care b. Media projection d. Proof of competence 48. The nurse is practicing CHN if she a. Visits an old woman in her home to change her post-surgical dressing b. Instructs a couple on newborn care c. Sets up a support program for teenage pregnant woman d. Does any of these 49. At all times, the community health nurse must provide quality nursing services based on; a. Standards of practice c. Nursing philosophy b. Principles d. Concepts and objectives of CHN 50. The context of CHN practice is; a. Existing health problems and needs of c. DOH goals the people d. Devolution of team b. Current health status of the people e. f. Situation: Tessie is a new community health nurse assigned in a rural community. 51. She noticed that Nay Lorta, the local herbolaria is snubbing her. The best thing for her to do is to a. Snub her as well and pretend she does not exist b. Ask the midwife to fetch her and have a meeting with her at the health center to clarify matters c. Make a courtesy call by visiting her at where she lives d. Send an invitation for a training of community health workers 52. She made a home visit to Marylin and Jose to give pre-natal instructions. She noticed that the two are having a quarrel. What will she say? a. “Why are you quarreling? Tell me so I can judge who is at fault.” b. “Can you stop quarreling? We will be talking about more important things.” c. “Stop it Jose. You are doing harm to the baby.” d. “Is it alright if I just come back some other time?” 53. In a health workers’ training, you found out that the participants toll along their small children. Anticipating confusion during the training, the best action is to; a. Put all children in another room and have someone look after them. b. Tell the participants to go home and have someone take care of their children. c. Let the children be, anyway, the participants have to take care of their young. d. Postpone the training for a day when participants can come by themselves alone. 54. It was election time and a candidate comes to you and requests you in a free clinic which is part of his campaign. What will you do? Review for the Philippine Nurses Licensure Examination (PNLE) – Intensive Drills|| 5

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Ask for an apology for not participating and tell him that the people can come to the health center anytime they need their services. b. Verify first if the candidate can give you a substantial professional fee. c. You like him, no questions ask, go! d. Wait until the rival candidate comes in and the one which you feel must win. A woman went into the center for treatment of syphilis. Your midwife shared the matter to mothers who were there during that time. What will you do? a. Confirm the story to the mother b. Explain to mothers that syphilis can be treated c. Ignore the incident d. Make a denial e. f. Situation: Community health nursing practice will require the application of basic concepts that will enhance service provision to people. Community participation is essential. This is made possible by; a. Conducting consultation meetings with key leaders of the community. b. Full participation of the nurses in decision making. c. Shared leadership in the community of the onset of the program. d. Provision of comprehensive and understandable information. To effectively provide nursing care to the community, the nurses must first; a. Understand the community’s culture. b. Review existing health records. c. Identify formal leaders. d. Assess the health beliefs of the people. The minimum level of the people’s participation is; a. Consultation c. Information b. Citizen’s control d. Partnership In addressing the health problems of the community, the nurses must ensure that; a. People identify and prioritize their own problems. b. Health team members give their share of responsibility in health care. c. People are passive recipients of services. d. DOH programs are carried out. People’s participation is made possible through; a. Primary health care b. Use of multidisciplinary approach c. Community organizing d. Local government code e. f. Situation: Community health nurses provide care to individuals who visit the health center. In conducting risk assessment, the nurse utilizes the principle that; a. Each individual is unique. c. An individual is part of the family. b. Client’s trust is necessary. d. Rapport must be established. In the health-belief model, an individual will take preventive health actions if he perceives; 63. 1. His susceptibility to disease 64. 2. The severity of disease 65. 3. Benefits or efficiency of actions 66. 4. The nurse is trustworthy a. All of the above c. 1 and 2 only b. 1,2 and 3 d. 1 only In promoting the healthy lifestyle of the individual, the nurse must emphasize the individual’s; a. Self-responsibility c. Self-respect b. Self-worth d. Self-dignity In dealing with the health problem of an individual, the nurse looks into the different factors affecting health as reflected in this model; a. Germ theory b. Epidemiological model c. Wellness-illness continuum d. Multiple causation model e. f. Situation: As the new public health nurse of Baryo Kepos Bayan, Pia applies the key concepts and principles of Community Health Nursing. As a Community Health Nurse, Pia’s concern will be the following population group; g. 1. Families in their homes h. 2. School population i. 3. Workers in the factories j. 4. Patients confined at CG Hospital a. All of the above c. All except 3 b. All except 4 d. All except 2 Among her efforts as a health nurse, Pia’s concern will be the following population group; a. Provide services to all individuals in the community. b. Identify high risk population groups in the community. c. Provide care to families in the community. d. Target the general public for community health service provision. The main focus of Pia’s efforts will be on; a. Provision of health and ensuring peaceful death b. Health promotion and disease prevention c. Ensuring the right to health and longevity Review for the Philippine Nurses Licensure Examination (PNLE) – Intensive Drills|| 6

d. Self reliance in health 68. Pia will have to coordinate with the other members of the health team. The approach which is integrated and comprehensive is referred to as; a. Multi-lateral approach c. Multi-casual approach b. Inter-disciplinary approach d. Multi-sectoral approach 69. Recognizing the fact that the condition in the community is dynamic. Pia must; a. Assess existing contradictions/conflicts to identify sources of problems. b. Assess community situation to identify sources of problems and possible solutions. c. Regard community as never static, hence, requiring ready and fixed health programs. d. Consider community as composed of integral parts of society. Situation: Phoebe and Pia are involved in health education work. 72. For health education to be successful, the nurses ensure that it is; a. Based on analysis of existing health programs. b. An outcome of evaluation of existing educational resources c. In accordance to the teaching competencies of the nurse d. Based on identified needs of the people 73. Health education is most needed when; a. Persons are still healthy b. People at early stage of illness c. People are sick d. Individuals at rehabilitation phase e. f. Situation: CHN is a synthesis of nursing practice and public health practice. 72. What is the aim of CHN? a. To serve all ages of population c. Development of human being b. Promoting and preserving health d. Limitation to certain age only 73. Where is CHN extended? a. Individuals, families and communities c. Mature and elderly b. Female population only d. Adolescents, adult and aged 74. What are the criteria to become a public health nurse? a. BSN graduate with license c. Specialist in any field b. Specialist in CHN d. Cum laude on graduation 75. The dynamic care of this nursing tool provides measurements of progress. What is the scientific, systematic process for quality care? a. Nursing policies b. Nursing standard c. Nursing procedures d. Nursing process e. f. Situation: Health and Wellness concepts 76. The modern concept of health refers to; a. How individuals can be called disease-free b. How individuals can avail the function of their immune system c. How individuals maintain maximum level of wellness d. How individuals avoid diseases 77. The factor in ecosystem affecting the individual’s health that is involved in the menace of population, basically man-made is; a. Behavioral c. Environmental influences b. Socio-economic d. Political 78. The factor in the ecosystem affecting the individual’s health that is involved in the provision of essential health services whether community-based, accessible, sustainable, and affordable is the; a. Socio-economic c. Behavioral b. Health Care Delivery System d. Political 79. Which is not an example of behavioral influences in the optimum level of functioning on health status? a. Cigarette smoking and alcohol drinking b. A grandmother with an adult-onset diabetes c. Sedentary lifestyle of an office worker d. Exposure to toxic substances in the workplace 80. 81. The level of health of an individual, family, group, population, or community is called; a. Health assets c. Health problem b. Health status d. Health needs 82. In the health care delivery system, ideally, rehabilitation services begin; a. Upon admission of clients in the health care system b. Upon discharge of clients from health care system c. After the client’s physical condition stabilizes d. Soon after the client has requested for rehab services 83. 84. Situation: Concepts of Community Health Nursing are used in working with the clients, individuals, families, group and communities. 82. The focus of CHN is the promotion of health. Which one below is the responsibility of the nurse upon meeting a client? a. Spot mapping of the location b. Making referral system c. Identifying available resources d. Assessment of health status 83. The CHN spend long period of time with the family as community clients in varied health settings. What kind of health care services are provided to members of this family? Review for the Philippine Nurses Licensure Examination (PNLE) – Intensive Drills|| 7

a. Referral only b. Selected problems c. All types d. Priority cases 84. In the practice of community health nursing, a continuum cycle of this dynamic process is done until termination of nursing is implicit. Which nursing knowledge is this? a. Nursing procedure b. Nursing process c. Nursing research d. Nursing management 85. The knowledge of the nurse in the community is not limited to nursing but a required and updated knowledge in biological and social sciences, ecology and utilization of this: a. Community health resources b. Health programs from the region c. Recruited family members d. Community health organizations 85. 86. Situation: The context of CHN is an instrument to community development. 86. Which program should a CHN participate actively to support global action for the environment? a. Toxic chemical waste management b. Anti-smoke belching c. Zero-hospital waste management d. Zero-solid waste management 87. The aim of partnership and collaboration with the people is to; a. Get people to work together to address concerns that affect them b. Give people an opportunity to learn skills in intrapersonal relations c. Bar people in the decision-making process d. Expect people to participate in the context of autocratic leadership 88. The basic reasons why community organizers need to phase out from the community is to enable; a. Nurses to open CO work in other depressed communities b. People to exercise self-reliance c. The people’s organization to expand their coverage d. People to test their unity and strength 89. The important foundation in community organization is to bring together several indigenous leaders. This is; a. Integration c. Representation b. Core group formation d. Mobilization 90. What is the method of establishing rapport with the people and exercising effort to imbibe community lifestyle with them? a. Integration c. Representation b. Core group formation d. Socialization 91. The nurse and other members of the health team provide training on basic health care and other concerns to organized group leaders. Which of the following phases of the COPAR process is the training done? a. Sustenance and strengthening phase b. Organization-building phase c. Pre-entry phase d. Entry phase e. f.

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g. LEVELS OF CLIENTELE h. i. Situation: The Individual as a Client The following are applications of the atomistic approach in looking at man EXCEPT: a. Provision of a tepid sponge bath to lower the temperature of the client b. Family therapy c. Nurses’ administration of medications at the right time d. Performance of proper wound care Hopelessness as a nursing problem falls under which dimension of man? a. Social c. Spiritual b. Psychological d. Intellectual The holistic approach in looking at an individual states that: a. Man is equal to the sum of his parts b. Man is composed of spare parts c. Man’s parts, when joined together, form a whole d. Man is different from, and is more than the sum of its parts Which of the following statements pertains to a man’s social dimension? a. Majority of men develop an unquestioning belief in someone or something b. The family is man’s first socializing agent c. Man’s rationality make him merciful d. Man is different from, and is more than the sum of his parts Lino Oban was granted a tertiary education scholarship by their town mayor to any private school in Manila. Coming from a poor farming community, you know that his first few days in school would pose as a threat to which of the following dimensions? a. Physical c. Spiritual b. Social d. Intellectual Ms. Sue Plada consulted the nurse at the industrial clinic and was advised to have a hemoglobin count. a. Physical b. Social Review for the Philippine Nurses Licensure Examination (PNLE) – Intensive Drills|| 8

c. Spiritual d. Intellectual 98. 99. All of the following conditions are examples of the application of the atomistic approach, except: a. Taking the temperature of the patient c. Assessing the type of family b. Testing visual acuity d. Administering medications 100. Which of the following statements regarding holistic approach is correct? a. People in a homogenous community share the same health perceptions b. Problems of the individual should be treated as separate from the problems of the family c. An individual can perform various roles at the same time d. We cannot teach new tricks to “old dogs” 101. The following are evidence that human beings hold supremacy over all of life forms EXCEPT: a. People are blessed with intellect and will. b. Humans could either be male or female. c. The humans are capable of establishing significant relations among others. d. An individual believes in the virtues of hope, faith, and charity. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110. 111. 112. 113. 114. 115. 116. 117. 118. 119. Set 2 120. 121. As a community health nurse, your clients are usually diverse. It is important that you should be aware of the needs of these clients according to their developmental stages. 1. Princess, 22 years old, has just been accepted in an ambulatory health clinic. She approached you to report an outbreak of influenza in their neighborhood and has shared with you how she anxiously awaits her first job. The major development focus of Princess and her age group is: a. Rebelling against parental control in matters of dating and going out with friends b. Deciding what worth can be shared by the next generation c. Finding oneself and developing initial commitments d. Resolving how one will confront death 2. In one of your clinics, you met Mrs. Baby, a 42-year-old woman, who began to feel anxious about her life. Her husband has been very busy, having been promoted as CEO of their company. Her oldest child is already working and the two younger ones are in school. She daydreams about having another baby. You would consider her situation as: a. Expecting midlife disillusionment c. Serious developmental abnormality b. Healthy life expectation d. Out of control midlife crisis 3. Mr. Melanio, 50 years old, is known to be obsessed with his graying and balding hair. He makes frequent negative references to his body and energy level, and at one time, he told his wife to leave him for a younger man. His behavior probably indicates ________. a. Mental or neurotic disorder c. Desire to separate from the wife b. Loss of sexuality d. Awareness of aging and mortality 4. Aling Melody, 75 years old, is very active in church activities. She is in good physical health but was brought to your clinic by her oldest daughter. Her daughter is disturbed because Aling Melody always talks about “when she dies”. She has given away some of her possessions to friends and other close relatives. She also told her family about wanting to be cremated when the “time” comes. She says she is fine and just wants to be realistic and ready. Your nursing interventions would most likely be to ________. a. Explain that her behavior is developmentally normal b. Loss of sexuality c. Desire to separate from the wife d. Awareness of aging and mortality 5. Mr. Valeros, 70 years old, came to the clinic complaining about muscle weakness, fatigue, and shortness of breath with his regular walking exercise in the morning. Upon examination, his BP is 136/86 and pulse rate is 70 beats/min. He said that after the short rest, he feels fine again. He is not taking any medication. Your analysis with his assessment would be most likely that he _________. a. Probably experiences signs of normal aging b. Needs to take preventive “anti-hypertensive” medication c. Has cardiac pathology and needs to be seen by the doctors d. None of the above e. f. Situation: The Family as a Client Review for the Philippine Nurses Licensure Examination (PNLE) – Intensive Drills|| 9

6. The family theory that sees the person as fulfilling roles within the social system: a. Structural-functional theory c. Developmental stage theory b. Crisis theory d. Interactional theory 7. This family theory states that the family’s major task is to create an environment, in which each family member can master the developmental tasks required of them to accomplish at each stage of development. a. Structural-functional theory c. Developmental stage theory b. Crisis theory d. Interactional theory 8. The birth of Joseph Jr. to the teenage daughter of the Santos couple compelled each family member to take turns in caring for him so that his mother would be able to go back to school. The family theory applicable to such as situation is the _________. a. Structural-functional theory c. Developmental stage theory b. Crisis theory d. Interactional theory 9. Failure to attend to the family health tasks, as identified by Freeman, constitutes __________. a. Family crisis c. Family weaknesses b. Family nursing problems d. Family needs 10. In 1983, Richard Kalish adapted Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs to come up with a theory on the needs of a family. Which among the following needs listed below is unique to Kalish Hierarchy of Needs? a. Stimulation need c. Exploration needs b. Pain avoidance need d. Protection e. f. For Numbers 20-25: Which of the following is characterized by the descriptions given below? a. Developmental theory b. Structural-functional theory c. Role theory d. Crisis theory 11. The empty nest stage is one of its sub-stages. A 12. It addresses the membership of the family & the dyadic relationships among members. B 13. Role strain occurs when individuals have difficulty meeting other expectations. C 14. One of the main functions of the family is to add and to socialize new members. B 15. The assumption is that the family is made up of members who may experience hazardous events in their life. D 16. Each family member has roles that are specialized or shared depending on age, sex, status, and complementarity. C g. h. Situation: The Population Group as a Client i. For Numbers 17-21: Choose the population group described in each number. a. Children c. Women b. Elderly d. Indigenous groups 17. Suffers from double burden. C 18. Afflicted with protein-energy malnutrition and micronutrient deficiencies. A 19. Suffers from decreased strength and sensory problems. B 20. Looks different from the rest, aside from having unique cultural practices. D 21. Victims of male and clan authority. C 22. 22. The constant presence of an etiological factor and a disease in a particular area is called a. Sporadic c. Epidemic b. Endemic d. Pandemic 23. To establish new cases of disease by studying those exposed to a risk factor, the nurse must conduct this study; a. Case control c. Prospective b. Cross-sectional d. Experimental 24. The primary aim of occupational health nursing is; a. Reduction of hazards in the work area b. Maintenance of a healthy work environment c. Promotion of optimum health and prevention of diseases and injuries d. Industrial peace among workers and management 25. Workers may be exposed to different hazards of work like biological hazards exemplified by a. Stress, tenure, salary c. Heat, cold, humidity b. Dust, fumes, chemicals d. Fungi, virus, bacteria 26. To weed out drug users in the school, the nurse sets up a drug watch community. This is an activity under that component of school health nursing. a. School health services b. School health instruction c. Healthful school living d. School-community-linkage

e. f. Situation: Care of population groups led to the development of specialized field in CHN. 27. Community health nursing emphasizes; a. Mental health promotion c. Mental hygiene b. Mental disease prevention d. Mental stress management 28. In Occupational Health Nursing, the nurse may establish the possible sources of occupational health problems in the work area, through conducting surveillance. Such activity is a part of the methods of what level of disease prevention? a. Intermediate c. Secondary b. Primary d. Tertiary 29. The primary aim of the Occupational Health Nurse is; a. Reduction of risks in the work area b. Maintenance of a healthy work environment c. Prevention of diseases and injuries and promotion of optimum in health Review for the Philippine Nurses Licensure Examination (PNLE) – Intensive Drills|| 10

d. Maximum productivity of the workers and labor harmony 30. In the school setting, the nurse may facilitate drills as preparation for disasters. This is under the component of School Health Nursing called; a. Health instruction c. Healthful school living b. School health services d. School-community linkage 31. The school nurse’s responsibilities in school health services will include the following except; a. Maintaining a school clinic b. Referrals and follow through c. Isolation of communicable diseases d. Food sanitation of school canteen

32.

33. 34.

36. 35. 36.

37.

38.

39. 40.

41.

e. f. ML, an elderly patient, 81 years old, loves to walk. She has failing eyesight, wobbly legs, is stubborn and believes she can still manage. What preventive measure will the nurse prescribe for her well-being that is, letting her walk as she likes, but at the same time protecting her from ill events in life? a. Ask her to have a companion whom she feels at ease with and to use a cane. b. Talk to her and warn her not to walk anymore because it’s dangerous. c. Suggest riding a wheelchair at regular times during the day. d. Give her liberty walk but at her own risk. When caring for older persons, what bioethical principle should you keep in mind? a. Autonomy c. Justice b. Beneficence d. Non-maleficence Regardless of social stratum, character, or difficulties of the old person’s personality and behavior, which should be accorded to the old person? a. Praise and well-wishes b. Mano po gestures c. Gratitude and humble service d. Respect, coupled with care and utmost attention 35. As included in the WHO’s Health for All in the Philippines, the elderly people are properly cared for at home. Which of the following needs, according to Maslow, apply to old people? a. Belongingness c. Emotional b. Economic d. Spiritual Humanitarian issues affect the care of the elderly. Filipino values are changing. Which one would you maintain in the care of the elderly? a. Labor and management c. Educational and recreational b. Income of elderly d. Security and protection What would be the thrust of the program that you would make for the elderly? a. Invoke elderly in a volunteer work b. Educate the children to be responsible for their parents c. Provide information on physical and social processes d. Build homes for the elderly In our country, senior citizens are given the privilege when they purchase their medicines. How much is the discount? a. 25% c. 15% b. 10% d. 20% e. f. Situation: The Community as a Client g. Which among the following is NOT an aim of Community Health Nursing? a. Relief and rehabilitation measures c. Management and treatment of diseases b. Health promotion d. Disease prevention Recognition of the community as having been made up of institutions organized into a social system is manifested in all of the following EXCEPT: a. The midwife courses the information regarding a scheduled immunization in the barangay hall through the head of the BHW. b. The community organizers conduct an initial courtesy call with the barangay officials c. The implementation of the health programs is accomplished with the help of the members of the barangay youth club. d. The public health nurse conducts home visits to provide nursing care to sick individuals. Which of the following statements about a community is not true? a. The dynamics in one community is the same as any other community in the country b. The community is a group of people sharing common geographic boundaries, or common values and interests. c. A community functions within a socio-cultural context in that the people share the same cultural heritage, making ach community unique from another. d. The physical characteristics of the environment vary and this affects the economic production of the people.

42. 43. HEALTH CARE DELIVERY SYSTEM 42. Which of the following contributes to poor health situation of the majority? 44. 1. High cost of health services 45. 2. Low priority for health 46. 3. Crisis oriented concept of health Review for the Philippine Nurses Licensure Examination (PNLE) – Intensive Drills|| 11

43.

44.

49.

50.

47. 4. Globalization a. 1 only c. 1,3 and 4 b. 1,2 and 3 d. All of these The following statements describe the health human resources except: a.Every year there is a marked increase in the number of health professionals b.Despite the increase in the number of health providers, there is still an enormous need in the rural areas c.The growing number of health professionals contributes to their low salaries and lack of benefits d.Migration to other countries is primarily an economic issue Despite the nature of disease patterns, hospitals have been developed and maintained as primary venues of health services because _________________ 45. 1. Some diseases are far advanced and require hospitalization 46. 2. Not all diseases can be prevented at the community level 47. 3. Hospitals are infrastructures that serve as proof of development 48. 4. Hospital practice is rooted in the colonial health science education system a. 1 and 2 c. 1,2 and 3 b. 2,3 and 4 d. 1,2,3 and 4 This process refers to the act by which the national government confers power and authority upon the various local government units to perform specific functions and responsibilities a.Globalization c. Devolution b.Privatization d. Liberalization Which of the following are the components of Health Sector Reform Agenda? 51. 1. Health financing reforms 52. 2. Local health system reforms 53. 3. Public health program reforms 54. 4. Hospital systems reforms 55. 5. Health regulatory reforms 56. 6. Public investment reforms a. All of these c. 2,3,4,5,&6 b. 1,2,3,4 & 5 d. 2,3,4 & 6 e. PRIMARY HEALTH CARE AS A STRATEGY

f. g. 47. Primary health care, as a service delivery policy of the DOH, permeates all strategies and thrusts of government health programs at which levels? 1) National level 2) Local government level 3) Community level 4) Private sector level 5) Semi-private sector level 6) Hospital level a. All of these c. 1, 3, & 4 b. 1, 2, & 3 d. 1, 4, & 5 48. The cornerstones of primary health care include all of the following, EXCEPT: a. Active community participation b. Use of latest technology c. Intra-and inter-sectoral linkages d. Support mechanism made available 49. 50. As a nurse in the Rural Health Unit, you plan with the midwife the family planning program of a mother. Who among of the following is involved in your plan? a.Municipal health officer b.Nutritionist c. Doctor on duty d.Community health worker 51. The elements of primary health care include which of the following? 1) Environmental sanitation 2) Control of communicable diseases 3) Adequate food and proper nutrition 4) Provision of essential drugs 5) Emergency treatment 6) Treatment of locally endemic diseases a. All of these c. 1, 2, 3, & 4 b. 1, 2, 5, & 6 d. None of the above 52. This refers to the smallest manageable health unit in areas that are small enough to be managed without being bogged down by much bureaucracy, yet large enough to make health care delivery feasible. a. Referral system c. District health system b. Referral hospital d. Rural health unit 53. The first international conference on Primary Health Care was held at ________. a. Geneva, Switzerland on 1978 c. Acapulco, Mexico in 1978 b. Washington, USA in 1979 d. Alma Ata, USSR in 1978. 54. To respond to prevailing health problems of the Filipino people, the emphasis of the health care system must be _________. a. Disease prevention Review for the Philippine Nurses Licensure Examination (PNLE) – Intensive Drills|| 12

b. Health promotion c. Health promotion and disease prevention d. Prevention and integration to development 55. The following statements about primary health care are true, EXCEPT: a. Primary health care recognizes the health of the people as essential in socio-economic development. b. Primary health care makes a distinction between the different classes of the people c. The goal of primary health care is attained through the provision of adequate health services. d. Primary health care is the nucleus of the country’s health c are system. 56. The goal of primary health care are according to the WHO is health for all by the year 2000 and beyond. What makes this goal achievable? a. Agent-host-environment c. Evolutionary-based b. Health-illness continuum d. High-level wellness 57. The multi-sectoral approach, in PHC, recognizes intersectoral and intrasectoral linkages in health. This means that health workers should work closely with all of the following sectors, EXCEPT: a. Local governments c. Agriculture b. Education d. Philippine army e. f.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

62. 63. 64.

Situation: Primary Health Care is the core strategy in program thrusts of government in all levels – national, regional, provincial and community. In intrasectoral linkages, which of the following levels of Health Services in the pyramidal organization focuses on the treatment of prevalent diseases in the community? a. Rural c. Regional b. District d. National In intersectoral linkages, the purpose is to unify the effort of health sector and others concerned. Which of the following development is expected from the Primary Health Care Approach? a. Social and Economic c. Intellectual and Emotional b. Physical and Social d. Spiritual and Psychological To which of the following health care facilities are cases referred to beyond the capability of the Primary Health Care Units and health workers competence? a. Community hospital c. Intermediate b. Regional d. Peripheral Primary Health Care endorses the concept of team work. Which of the following factors would make the health service sssseffective and efficient? a. Team planning c. Workshops b. Group work d. Team building The Community Health Nurses, as a health worker, must present a positive attitude for the Primary Health Care services to be effective. Which of the following should be done by the nurse? a. Refer to politicians the health problems b. Discard traditional attitudes c. Let people depend on the nurse d. Encourage bureaucratic set up e. f. Situation: The primary health care (PHC) approach The following statements pertaining to PHC are correct except; a. Ultimate goal is self-reliance c. Responds to immediately health problems b. Alternative health system d. Utilizes approach technology The PHC is effective when CH nurses a. Are models of health c. Initiate mass actions b. Lead people in community mobilization d. Trust people’s capabilities The goal of PHC according to the DOH is; a. Health for all by year 2000 b. Health for all by 2000 and health in the hands of the people by 2020 c. Health for all in 2000 and beyond d. Provide equity and quality health care in partnership with people.

65. 66. 67. LEVELS OF HEALTH CARE AND LEVELS OF DISEASE PREVENTION 65. Which of the following services fall under tertiary level of health care services? a.City hospitals c. Provincial hospitals b.Regional medical centers d. Emergency hospitals 66. Health problems beyond the capability of the village health workers are referred to an intermediate health facility, usually a _________________ a. District hospital c. Specialty clinic b. Medical center d. Rural health unit 67. This system is established so that lower – level health facilities/ services refer more serious and complicated cases to higher level facilities. a. Multiple referral system c. Two – way referral system b. One – way referral system d. Multi – level referral system 68. Which of the following are intermediate level health workers? 1. Sanitary inspector 2. Municipal health officer 3. Nutritionist 4. Village health worker 5. Public health nurse 6. Midwife Review for the Philippine Nurses Licensure Examination (PNLE) – Intensive Drills|| 13

a. All of these b. 1,2,5 and 6 69. 70.

71.

72. 73.

74.

75. 76. 77.

c. 1,2,3 and 4 d. None of the above

e. f. Situation: Health Promotion The goal of health promotion is to a. Identify and minimize risk factors c. Popularize healthy habits b. Rehabilitate sick individuals d. Increase wellness level Which of the following pertains to health promotion? a. Health protection manifesting behavior b. Specific to a particular health problem c. Approach activities to enhance health capabilities d. Shorten the duration of the disease process Individual wellness refers to; a. The person’s ability to abide by the community norms b. The person’s maintenance of healthy lifestyle c. The person’s ability to adapt to his external environment d. The individual’s formation of health beliefs and habits In health promotion, community wellness is ensured through the promotion of a. Healthy lifestyles c. Healthy behavior and beliefs b. Healthy environment d. Healthy norms Nutrition, as an important method of health promotion is ensured through a. Growth monitoring c. Taking vitamins b. Balanced diet d. Micro-nutrient supplementation e. f. Situation: Phoebe becomes responsible in the health promotion program of the health unit. Phoebe must understand that the goal of health promotion is centered on; a. Decreasing risk factors that will endanger health. b. Diverting the occurrence of a disease condition or a health problem. c. Enhancing the level of wellness of the different clientele. d. Health protection against particular health problems. At the level of individual wellness, the nurse ensures that an individual maintains; a. Commitment to societal norms c. Health behaviors and beliefs b. Healthy lifestyle d. Health surroundings In health promotion, a most basic nursing intervention to be prioritized is; a. Client teaching c. Primary health care b. Community organizing d. Risk appraisal In health promotion, it is believed that health behaviors and beliefs are formed at the level of the; a. Individual c. Community b. Family d. Society

78. 79. Personal habits affecting health are referred to as: a. Hygiene practices b. Health behavior c. Health living d. Lifestyle e. f. Situation: Activities in health promotion and disease prevention 80. Establishing youth clubs and mother’s organization in the community is; a. Primary level disease prevention c. Tertiary level disease prevention b. Secondary level disease prevention d. Health promotion 81. Assistance in physical therapy of a trauma patient; a. Primary level disease prevention c. Tertiary level disease prevention b. Secondary level disease prevention d. Health promotion 82. Conducting clinics in prisons to determine the extent of infectious diseases is a. Primary level disease prevention c. Tertiary level disease prevention b. Secondary level disease prevention d. Health promotion 83. Giving lectures on sex education to high school students is a. Primary level disease prevention c. Tertiary level disease prevention b. Secondary level disease prevention d. Health promotion 84. Identifying sick individuals in the community for prompt treatment is a. Primary level disease prevention b. Secondary level disease prevention c. Tertiary level disease prevention d. Health promotion

84. Specific protection against disease is an activity under ___________ a. Primary prevention c. Tertiary prevention b. Secondary prevention d. None of the above 85. The following activities are examples of tertiary prevention except: a. Colostomy support group c. Passive ROM exercises b. Proper transferring techniques d. Crutch walking 86. 87. 88. SITUATION 2: Given the following activities, identify which level of disease prevention or health promotion would belong to a. Primary level of disease prevention b. Secondary level of disease prevention Review for the Philippine Nurses Licensure Examination (PNLE) – Intensive Drills|| 14

c. Tertiary level of disease prevention d. Health promotion 89. Management of epidemics - C 90. Conducting sputum microscopy on TB suspects - B 91. Establishing youth clubs and mother’s organization in the community - D 92. Assistance in the physical therapy of trauma patient - C 93. Conducting epidemiologic investigations to identify the extent of spread of infectious disease - C 94. Promotion of condom use -D 95. Teaching self – injection insulin to diabetic - C 96. Male circumcision - D 97. Sex education - D 98. Ball room dancing for the middle – aged - D 99. Breastfeeding – D 100. Operation Timbang in Brgy. 645 - B 101. Use of hard hats in construction sites - A 102. Surgical handwashing - C 103. Use of mosquito nets - A 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110. 111.Set 3 112. 113.Situation: Disease Prevention 1. The best time for disease prevention is during this phase of the disease process. a. Asymptomatic c. Symptomatic b. Prepathogenic d. Pathogenic 2. Primary level disease prevention methods are applied during this phase a. Asymptomatic c. Symptomatic b. Prepathogenic d. Pathogenic 3. Secondary level disease prevention methods are applied in this phase; a. Asymptomatic c. Symptomatic b. Prepathogenic d. Pathogenic 4. Tertiary level of prevention is applied in this phase; a. Asymptomatic c. Symptomatic b. Prepathogenic d. Pathogenic 5. A particular disease is far advanced if it is at this phase; a. Asymptomatic b. Prepathogenic c. Symptomatic d. Pathogenic

6. Catheterization of a client to promote urinary elimination is an example of __________ a. Primary level disease prevention c. Tertiary level disease prevention b. Secondary level disease prevention d. Health promotion a. 7. How could research data be utilized in the prevention of diseases? b. In recording epidemics and communicable diseases c. In prescribing meds for communicable diseases d. In monitoring primary health care effects e. In reporting case findings 8. The following activities fall under secondary prevention except: a. Pap smear c. Dental prophylaxis b. Self – breast examination d. Chemotherapy 9. The following activities are examples of health promotion except: a. Regular exercises b. Use of insect repellants c. Stress management d. Maintenance of ideal body weight a. b. Situation: Disease prevention is an emphasis in community health work. 10. Primary prevention methods will best be exemplified by: a. Screening tests c. Avoidance of carcinogens/allergens b. Prompt treatment d. Contact tracing 11. Disease prevention is most effective if done with partnership of the; a. Barangay officials c. Local government b. People d. Members of the health team 12. 13. After pelvic surgery, the sign that would be indicative of a developing thrombophlebitis would be; a. Pitting edema on the ankle c. A reddened area in the ankle b. Pruritus on the calf and thigh d. A tender, painful area on the leg 14. Primary level prevention is illustrated by; Review for the Philippine Nurses Licensure Examination (PNLE) – Intensive Drills|| 15

a.

15. 16. 17. 18.

Teaching the mother of the child with diarrhea c. Conducting Operation Timbang how to use Oresol d. Teaching a patient post-mastectomy exercises b. Isolation of the child with chicken pox Which is a secondary level of facility? a. San Isidro Rural Health Unit c. Hocus Provincial Hospital b. San Lazaro Hospital d. University of Santo Tomas Hospital Which of the following is a failure in health maintenance? a. Health deficit c. Foreseeable crisis b. Health threats d. Health needs Which are conditions conductive to diseases, accident or failure to realize one’s potential? a. Health threats c. Foreseeable crisis b. Health deficit d. Health needs Absence of regular health check-up is an example of; a. Health threats b. Health deficit c. Foreseeable crisis d. Health needs

e. f. FAMILY HEALTH NURSING PROCESS g. h.

Situation: Family health nursing focuses on the promotion of health of the family. Given that your client is the Gandara Family of Barrio Kapos. 18. Which of the following is the top priority for the Gandara family? a. Unemployment of Roel, the head of the family b. Scabies of Ryan, the eldest son c. Mild anemia in the pregnancy of Aida, the mother d. Poor home environment 19. Unemployment is a; a. Health threat c. Stress point b. Health deficit d. Both health deficit and stress point 20. When all the children got married and left the Gandara’s, the stage is referred to by Duvall as the; a. Beginning family b. Family with teenagers c. Laughing center d. Old age/retirement family

21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. i. j.

e. f. g. Situation: First Level assessment of the Family h. For numbers 21 – 28, choose the type of data that describes the examples given below. a. Family structure, characteristics and dynamics b. Socio – economic and cultural characteristics c. Home and environment d. Health status of each family member e. Beliefs and practices Nutritional intake of each family member - D All members of the family finished high school in public school - B Cigarette smoking - C Pail system - C Extended family - A Eldest child with a history of primary complex - D Family members are non – members of any barangay organization - B Congested neighborhood - C For numbers 29 – 38, identify the type of nursing problem described below. a. Wellness condition b. Health threat c. Health deficit d. Stress points/ foreseeable crisis situation Blindness - C Regular exercise - A Hospitalization of a family member - D Family disunity - B Malnutrition - C Resettlement in a new village - D Spiritual well being - A STDs - C Loss of job of a couple with seven children - B Poor impulse control - B

29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. k. l. SITUATION: Second Level Health Assessment of the Family m. Numbers 39 – 47 describe client activities that possibly lead to family nursing problems. Choose the appropriate Family Nursing Problem which the situations described would lead to a. Inability to recognize the presence of the problem b. Inability to make decisions with respect to taking appropriate health action c. Inability to provide adequate nursing care to the sick, disabled, dependent or at risk member of the family Review for the Philippine Nurses Licensure Examination (PNLE) – Intensive Drills|| 16

d. Inability to provide a home environment conducive to health maintenance 39. Denial of the existence emphysema - A 40. Lack of parenting skills - C 41. Lack of knowledge regarding proper toilet construction - D 42. Lack of financial resources, such as fare for a pregnant woman to get to a nearby facility for pre – natal check – up - D 43. Role conflict between the adult members of the family - C 44. Lack of knowledge regarding the signs and symptoms of diabetes and its complications - A 45. Client perception of hypertension as low salience - A 46. Conflicting opinions of family members regarding which family planning method to use - B 47. Stigma associated with tuberculosis - A n. o. Situation 3: Priority Setting of Family Nursing Problems p. Number 48 –52 describe the criteria in determining priorities among health conditions. Choose the appropriate criterion in priority setting that describes the examples given below a. Nature of the condition b. Modifiability of the condition or problem c. Preventive potential d. Salience 48. foreseeable crisis - A 49. refers to the nature and magnitude of future problems that can be minimized - C 50. refers to the family’s perception of the seriousness of a health condition or problem - D 51. wellness state - A 52. refers to the probability of success in eradicating the problem - B 53. If the figures below pertain to scores when priority setting was done by the nurse, which health problem do you think should the nurse prioritize? a. 4 and 2/3 c. 3 and 2/3 b. 4 d. 2 and 2/3 54. Which of the following is the highest possible score of any health problem? a. 7 c. 5 b. 6 d. 4 55. Which of the following is the lowest possible score of any health problem? a. 0 c. 1/3 b. 1 d. 2/3 56. The nurse considers the following factors in determining the modifiability of a health condition, except: a. Current knowledge, technology and c. Resources of the family interventions d. Gravity of the health problem b. Resources of the nurse 57. The nurse considers the following in scoring for the preventive potential of a health condition, except: a. Exposure of any high risk group c. History of illnesses b. Duration of the problem d. Current management of the disease e. f. COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING PROCESS g. Situation: Community Diagnosis 58. Community diagnosis as a process involves _______________ a. Step by step data gathering b. Identification of the health problems of the community c. A continuous learning experience for the nurse and the community people d. Continuous development of the community health programs 59. Community diagnosis as a profile involves ______ a. Data gathering, data collation and data analysis b. To identify the resources available to the community people c. To enable the nurse to set priorities for planning d. To coordinate health services with other socio – economic services in the community 60. Community diagnoses is done because of the following reasons, except: a. To have a clear picture of the problems of the community b. To identify the resources available to the community people c. To enable the nurse to set priorities for planning d. To coordinate health services with other socio – economic services in the community 61. This type of community diagnoses aims to obtain general information about the community or a certain population group. a. Comprehensive community diagnoses b. Problem oriented community diagnoses c. Rapid rural appraisal d. None of the above 62. Demographic variables show the following, except; a. Population size c. Population control b. Population distribution d. Population composition 63. The following are examples of demographic data needed in the community diagnosis, except: a. Patterns of immigration c. Political groups identified b. Growth rate d. Total population e. f. For numbers 64 – 74. The following are socioeconomic data needed for community diagnosis. Choose the category to which the given examples belong to: Review for the Philippine Nurses Licensure Examination (PNLE) – Intensive Drills|| 17

64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75.

76.

77.

78.

79. 80.

81.

82. 83. 84. 85.

86.

a. Social indicators c. Environmental indicators b. Economic indicators d. Cultural indicators Light industry - B Two – way radio - A 67% are high school undergraduates - A Covered basketball court - B 3% practicing composting - C Suob - D Natural spring - C Usog - D Open pit privy - C Peddicab driver - B Banyon - D Environmental indicators include i. Physical characteristics of the community ii. Water supply iii. Land ownership iv. Transportation v. Waste disposal vi. Air, water and land pollution a. All, except 1 and 2 c. All, except 3 and 4 b. All, except 2 and 3 d. All, except 4 and 5 Health illness pattern as an aspect of the community diagnosis includes the following, except: a. Top five causes of mortality b. Number of mothers dying due to pregnancy, delivery and puerperium c. Number of new cases of a disease d. Top ten developmental issues Health resources include i. Budget allotment per household ii. Community recreational facilities iii. Health manpower available iv. Health budget and expenditures v. Categories of health services available vi. Geographic distribution of health manpower a. All, except 1 and 2 c. All, except 3 and 4 b. All, except 2 and 3 d. All, except 4 and 5 There are three levels of data gathering when doing community diagnosis. Which of the following statements, when made by the nurse, indicates an acceptable level of data gathered in a certain population? a. We will conduct a survey of 10% households in Brgy. Sta. Lucia b. I will interview 10% of the enlisted CHWs in Brgy. Sta Lucia c. I will gather data from among 10% of the traditional healers identified in Brgy. Sta Lucia. d. We will leave the questionnaire in 30% of the households for them to answer and pick them up the following day. The following are instruments in data gathering, EXCEPT: a. Biodata form c. Interview guide b. Survey questionnaire d. Observation checklist Target setting in community diagnosis involves which of the following? a. Constructing time plan b. Conducting household calls c. Motivating community members to participate in the study d. Developing a spot map of the community Which of the following is NOT a community dimension secondarily related to health? a. Presence of a concrete road b. 50% of children are malnourished c. 23% are Iglesia ni Cristo d. A piggery in the southern part does not practice proper excreta disposal The following are community dimensions directly related to health, EXCEPT: a. Food and nutrition c. Type of injuries b. Endemic disease d. None of the above Community health nursing problems may be categorized as the following, EXCEPT: a. Health – related problems c. Health resources problems b. Health status problems d. None of the above To facilitate data collection, the choices in the survey form should be: a. Coded c. Mutually beneficial b. Encoded d. Mutually exclusive The following are examples of an exhaustive category, EXCEPT: a. Sex: male, female, others b. Income: below P1000; P1001 – P5000; above 5000 c. Educational attainment: None, Elementary Undergraduate, elementary Graduate, High School Undergraduate, Highschool Graduate, College Undergraduate, College Graduate, Graduate level of studies d. Religion: Roman Catholic, Protestant, Islam and others Which of the following is not an activity under the implementation phase of community diagnosis Review for the Philippine Nurses Licensure Examination (PNLE) – Intensive Drills|| 18

a. Actual data gathering b. Feedback of results to the community c. Action planning d. Target setting 87. Which of the following refers to activities that should be conducted as a result of the community diagnosis? a. Action planning c. Planning b. Health action d. Development programs e. f. For numbers 88 – 98. The following are community health nursing problems identified through community diagnosis. Choose the category to which the given examples belong to. a. Health status problems c. Health related problems b. Health resources problems d. None of the above 88. Malaria - A 89. Unapproachable RHU staff - B 90. Lack of antibiotics in the Rural Health Unit - B 91. Sexual and Reproductive Rights bill (HB 3773) - C 92. 5% of the population practice responsible parenthood - A 93. High prevalence of UTI among the women – A 94. 1: 100,000 midwife to population ratio - B 95. Absence of nebulizer in the barangay health station - B 96. Active military operations against the NPAs - C 97. Unpredictable harsh weather - C 98. Malfunctioning weighing scale at the health center - B 99. Impassable roads due to landslide - C 100. Priority – setting of community health nursing problems make use of the following criteria 1. Nature of the problem 2. Salience of the problem 3. Magnitude of the problem 4. Social concern 5. Preventive potential 6. Modifiability of the problem a. All, except 1 c. All, except 3 b. All, except 2 d. All, except 4 101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110. 111. 112. 113. 114. 115. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120. 121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130. 131. 132. 133. 134. 135. 136. 137. 138. 139. 140. Review for the Philippine Nurses Licensure Examination (PNLE) – Intensive Drills|| 19

141. 142. 143. 144. 145. 146. 147. 148. 149. 150. 151. 152. 153. 154. 155. 156. 157. 158. 159. 160. 161.

Set 4

162. 163. 164.

SITUATION: Planning for community Health programs For numbers 1 – 5, choose the type of plan that fits the example/ description given below a. Comprehensive plan d. Medium term plan b. Operational plan e. Short term plan c. Long term plan 1. Purchase of a month’s supply of cotton and alcohol 4. President Ramos’ plan for Philippines to reach the for a pediatric clinic - B newly industrializing country status by the year 2000. 2. National health plan - C -D 3. WHO plan to eradicate tuberculosis worldwide - A 5. Regular purchase of office supplies for the health center - B 165. 166. Situation: Community Diagnosis 6. The most common method of community diagnosis that accounts for the bulk of date is; a. Census c. Interview b. Records review d. Sample survey 7. The following are steps on processing data. Arrange them in order. 8. 1. data analysis 9. 2. data collection 10. 3. data presentation 11. 4. data collation a. 2,4,1 and 3 c. 2,4,3 and 1 b. 2,3,4 and 1 d. 2,3,1 and 4 12. The major factors affecting the population include the following except; a. Births c. Migration b. Deaths d. Morbidity 13. A population pyramid with a triangular shape and broad base indicates the following except; a. Death rates c. Young population b. Poverty d. More females 14. The sampling method used for a reliable community diagnosis is; a. Simple random b. Multi-stage c. Cluster d. Systematic random

e. f.

COMMUNITY ORGANIZING g. Situation: Community Organizing Participatory Action Research (COPAR) 11. The following describes community organizing, except: a. It is a continuous and sustained process of educating the people to understand and develop their critical awareness on their condition. b. It involves motivating the elected leader to work for the good of the selected members of the community. c. It entails working with the people collectively and efficiently on their immediate and long-term problems. d. It includes mobilizing the people for capability-building process. 12. Which of the following statements regarding the definitions of COPAR is not true? a. COPAR is a social development approach that aims to transform the apathetic, individualistic, and voiceless poor into a politically responsive community. b. COPAR is a continuous and sustained process of educating the people to understand and develop their critical awareness of their existing condition. c. COPAR is a process by which the community identifies its needs and objectives and develops confidence to take action to solve their own problems. d. COPAR is a collective, participatory, and a fixed process of building community organizations. 13. Which of the following statements is true with regard to the importance of COPAR? Review for the Philippine Nurses Licensure Examination (PNLE) – Intensive Drills|| 20

22. 14. 23. 15. 24.

25. 16. 26.

17. 27. 28.

18. 29.

30.

19. 31. 32.

20. 33. 34.

21.

39. 40. 41. 42. 43.

a. Role COPAR playgenerates income for the oppressed sector of the society. c. Validation b. Program COPAR prepares planning people to eventually take over the management d. meetings of development programs. The following c. COPAR activities maximizes fall underthe theresources pre-entry of or the preparatory upper class phase of society. of community organizing, EXCEPT: d. Social a. COPARpreparation generates through income for sensitization the oppressed of barangay sector of leaders the society. Which ofb.theCommunity following statements profiling is TRUE with regard to the principles of COPAR? a. Site c. The selection most oppressed and exploited sectors of the society are open to change. b. Entry d. COPAR into should the community be based on the interest of the upper class of society. The other c. term Thefor poorest the entry sector phase of the is ________. society resists social change. d. Orientation a. COPAR willphase only temporarily lead to self-reliance because poor c. people, Social by orientation nature, needs phasediscipline, and b. Social guidance. preparation phase d. Preparation phase Which This phase of thesignals following the statements actual entryisofNOT the community TRUE regarding organizer the PROCESSES into the community. involved in COPAR? a. Pre-entry COPAR utilizes a progressive cycle of action-reflection-actionc.process. Organizational building phase b. Entry Consciousness raising through experiential learning is centrald.to COPAR. Preparation phase e. c. COPAR is leader-oriented; thus, it focuses on core group formation. f. CHN, the nurse utilizes community organizing (CO). d. Situation: COPAR is In participatory and mass-based. The of purposes CO is Onegoal of the of integration in COPAR is to __________. a. Community participation c. People’s a. Gather data that is necessary in the identification of community health organization problems. b. Community development d. People’s awareness b. Understand deeply the culture and lifestyle in the community. Preliminary investigation utilizeshealth needs identified earlier. c. social Validate the community a. Primary datathe sources c. Registries and records d. Identify community leaders that may be tapped for organizing purposes. b. Interviews and organizations d. Focus group discussions Methods of integration include the following, EXCEPT: Upon entry to the community, the nurse can start the following except; a. Participation in direct production activities of the people. a. Deepening social investigation c. Small group formation b. Conduct house-to-house visits b. Community integration d. Social preparation c. Helping out in household chores Manageable units of the community to facilitate service delivery and people’s participation; in all the social activities of the youth inc.theCore community a. d. SpotParticipating map group Social investigation is a systemic process of collecting, collating, and analyzing data group to draw a clear picture of the b. Small group d. Organizing community, except; The basic reasons why the community organizers need to phase out the community is to enable the; Training community leaders in doing social investigation a. a. Nurse to openofCO work in other depressed c. People’s organization to expand their coverage b. Analysis of secondary data available should be considered as nottototest duplicate dataand and waste time areas d. soPeople their unity strengths and effort. b. People to exercise self-reliance c. Proper integration of health is necessary An instrument for gathering objective data workers from an individual is; in facilitating social investigation. d. Datahistory gathering should utilize survey questionnaires c. Use of laboratory exam findings a. Nursing Groundwork b. Physical is defined assessment as ___________. d. Process recording The exact of thepeople current problematic situation is stated as a;towards the resolution of community problems a.opposite Motivating on a one-on-one basis to work a. Plan c. problems Objectivewill be solved. b. Going around and giving tasks to people so that community b. Goal d. Evaluation c. Uniting the community people as a group on the proper action towards the resolution of community In the assessment phase of the family health nursing process, an indicator for problem prioritization of a family health problems. problem d. is the; Measuring the outcome of activities implemented versus the objectives that were set. a. Nature the____________. problem c. Modifiability Reflection dealsofwith b. Preventive potential a. Addressing with the deeper and ongoing concerns ofd.theSalience community problems will be solved By its nature, which ofthe the lessons followinglearned problems willone be given least priority? b. Echoing from organization to the other. a. Unemployment c. Poor home environment c. Establishing a mirror image “of the successful organization in one barangay in another barangay. b. Scabies d. Ascariasis d. Acting out the tasks that will be done so as to build the community organization. Which of the following indications are used for determining the family’s value on prevention? The following are critical activities under COPAR, except: 35. 1. Updated immunization schedule 36. 2. Family’s concept of prevention 37. 3. Compliant behavior 38. 4. Eating habits a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 4 c. 1,2 and 3 d. 1,2,3 and 4 e. f. Situation: To ensure the people’s participation, Pia and Phoebe employed Community Organizing (CO). Community organizing is a continuous and sustained a. Approach c. Strategy b. Process d. Intervention The goal of CO is; a. Community involvement c. Community participation b. Community development d. Community integration Awareness raising is an important element of CO because; a. It is the primary motivation to action. c. It may result to chaos if people are not aware. b. It means community involvement. d. It preserves a culture of silence. Preliminary social investigation utilizes; a. Primary data c. Actual interviews b. Registries from the municipal hall d. Ocular inspection The best entry to the community is; a. Low key approach b. Entry with a parish priest c. Endorsement by the mayor d. Free clinic

e. f. COMMUNITY ORGANIZING 40. This phase entails the formation of more formal structures in the community. a. Pre-entry phase b. Entry phase Review for the Philippine Nurses Licensure Examination (PNLE) – Intensive Drills|| 21

c. Organizational building phase d. Sustenance and strengthening phase 41. This phase entails the inclusion of more formal procedures of planning, implementing, and evaluating community-wide activities. a. Pre-entry phase c. Organizational building phase b. Entry phase d. Sustenance and strengthening phase 42. This phase occurs when the community organization has already been established and the community members are already participating in the community-wide. a. Pre-entry phase c. Organizational building phase b. Entry phase d. Sustenance and strengthening phase 43. The following are guidelines that should be followed in the entry phase, except: a. Recognize the role of local authorities b. Lifestyle of organizer should be in keeping with those of the community residents c. Organizer should be famous among the community people d. The community organizer should act as a role model 44. The training and education of the community health organization members is important for the following purposes, except: a. To consolidate the organization b. To motivate the members to act as a united whole c. To equip the members of the organization with the necessary leadership and health skills d. None of the above 45. The following are training programs a community health organization member should undergo, except: a. Self-awareness leadership training c. Basic nursing skills b. Basic health skills training d. Advance health skills training e. 46. One supervised project in the barangay is putting up “Botika ng Barangay” which is supervised by one of the following health care providers: a. Pharmacist c. Midwife b. Physician d. Nurse 47. Which of the following is not a function of the Community Health Organization? a. Regular planning and conduct of ARAS b. Ensures collective participation in decision-making, planning, implementation, and evaluation of community projects c. Raising the community’s consciousness on health d. None of the above 48. Organization building in community organizing involves the following except: a. Spotting and developing potential c. Core group formation leaders d. Setting up of the community b. Community integration organization 49. Which of the following is not an activity under the sustenance and strengthening phase of COPAR? a. Development of financial management systems b. Application for SEC registration c. Conduct of leadership training seminars among core group members d. Collaboration and forming federations with other groups or organizations 50. The following are strategies under the sustenance and strengthening phase, except: a. Education and training c. Solicitation of material resources b. Conduct of mobilizations needed d. Developing secondary leaders 51. COPAR as a concept is important in community health nursing because: a. It is a comprehensive and its principles are in keeping with the principles of primary health care b. Community organizing is necessary in all community settings. c. Its methods are already proven to be effective d. It is adopted as a community health nursing approach by all nursing schools. 52. 53. Situation: Community Development 54. The three main goals of community development include the enhancement of the following, except: a. People’s knowledge c. People’s capability b. People’s participation d. People’s well-being 55. The three main fields of community development include the following, except: a. Community education c. Community enterprise b. Community organization d. Community resource management 56. Community education involves the following goals, except: a. Conscientization c. Community value formation b. Networking d. Skills development 57. The following are basic principles of community development processes. e. 1- Democratic and inter- and intra-linked f. 2- culture-sensitive and gender-sensitive g. 3- Dynamic and integrated h. 4- Sustainable and empowering a. All, except 1 c. All, except 3 b. All, except 2 d. All of the above e. f. SELECTED PUBLIC HEALTH PROGRAMS g.

Situation: The basis of the programs by nurses is the community’s health situation. Review for the Philippine Nurses Licensure Examination (PNLE) – Intensive Drills|| 22

56. The community’s situation reflects the characteristics at the national level. Thus, nurses identify the following as descriptive statements of the health of the people except; a. Infectious diseases dominating in the disease patterns b. Widespread malnutrition c. A young population as indicated by low median age d. High infant mortality rate and controlled maternal mortality rate 57. The underlying root of the poor health situation in the country is; a. Lopsided priorities of the government c. Poverty b. Graft and corruption d. Backward culture 58. Improvement in health is only made possible through; a. More health professionals committing themselves in community work b. Government ensuring high budget allocation for health c. Genuine people’s participation d. Re-orientation of health science curricula 59. High infant mortality rate will require improvements of health services in this program; a. Under-five clinic c. Expanded immunization program b. Maternal and child health d. Family planning 60. Reviewing the leading cause of morbidity and mortality, the most common disease according to transmission are; a. Respiratory c. Degenerative b. Systematic d. Vector-borne e.

f. Situation: Family Planning. 61. Natural family planning methods include i. Implants ii. IUD iii. Basal Body Temperature iv. Sympto-Thermal Method v. Abstinence vi. Cervical Mucus Method g. a. 1, 3 and 5 b. 3, 4, 5 and 6 h. b. 3, 4 and 6 c. All of these 62. Child spacing involves the couple’s decision to implement any of the following: i. Hormonal methods of FP ii. Permanent methods of FP iii. Natural methods of FP iv. Biologic methods of FP v. Barrier method of FP vi. Safe sex 63. a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 a. 1,3,4 and 5 64. b. 1,3,5 and 6 b. All of the above 65. For family planning to succeed, an important consideration in the decision-making process regarding the appropriate method to use is the 66. a. Woman’s decision c. Couple’s decision 67. b. Man’s decision d. Health worker’s decision 68. Which of the following is an example of a biologic method of child spacing? 69. a. Lactation amenorrhea method c. Implants 70. b. Diaphragm d. Depo-provera 71. The cervical mucus method indicates that the woman should observe the following, EXCEPT a. Mucus secretions b. Feeling of heaviness in the perineal area c. Vaginal sensations of wetness or dryness d. Menstrual days 72. Family planning principles and goals include i. Woman’s health ii. Responsible parenthood iii. Safe Sex iv. Prenatal care v. Child’s health vi. Safe motherhood 73. a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 b. 2,3,4 and 5 c. 1,2,5 and 6 d. All of the above 74. The following methods are 99% effective, EXCEPT a. Tubal ligation c. Sterilization b. Vasectomy d. LAM 75. The following statements regarding tubal ligation are true, EXCEPT a. It can be performed right after a woman gives birth. b. It has an effect on the quantity of the breastmilk produced by the woman. c. It has no known long-term side-effect. d. It helps protect against ovarian cancer. 76. The following statements about vasectomy are true, EXCEPT a. It is fully effective only after 20 ejaculations or three months. b. It has no effect n the sexual performance of the male. Review for the Philippine Nurses Licensure Examination (PNLE) – Intensive Drills|| 23

c. Its common complication includes pain in the scrotum, swelling and bruising. d. It results in decreased semen production 77. The cervical mucus of a woman in the fertile period possesses the following characteristics i. Slippery ii. No secretions iii. Elastic iv. Breaks when stretched v. Watery vi. Smelly 78. a. 2 only c. 3 only b. 2,4 and 6 d. 1,3 and 5 79. 80. Situation: The Department of Health is the head administrative agency, governing the health sector in the Philippines. 71. The vision of the DOH is; a. Health for all Filipinos b. Health in the hands of the people by the year 2020 c. The leader, staunch advocate and model in promoting health for all in the Philippines d. Guarantee equitable, sustainable, and quality health for all Filipinos, especially the poor and shall lead the quest for excellence in health 72. The goal of the DOH is Health Sector Reform Agenda (HSRA), with the National Objectives of Health (NOH) serving as the roadmap for all stakeholders in health. All of the following are reasons for health sector reform, except; a. Slowing down in the reduction of both infant and maternal mortality rates b. Rising and high burden from chronic, degenerative diseases and infectious diseases, respectively c. Unattended emerging health risks from environmental and work related factors d. Burden of disease is heaviest on the affluent 73. The following are considered as a specific role of the DOH based on EO 102, except; a. Leader in health c. Enabler and capacity builder b. Reformist for health development d. Administrator of specific services 74. The Health Sector Reform Agenda (HSRA) utilizes FOURmula ONE for Health as its framework, having four components such as health financing, health regulation, service delivery, and good governance. Which of the following is not included in the goals of this framework? a. Better health outcomes c. Streamlining health system b. More responsive health system bureaucracy d. Equitable health care financing 75. The following are included in the Millenium Development Goals that is based on the fundamental values of freedom, equality, solidarity, tolerance, health, respect of nature and shared responsibility. Which is not health-related? a. Eradicate extreme poverty c. Improve maternal health b. Promote gender equality and empower d. Ensure environmental sustainability women e. f. Situation: The DOH formulated the plans, programs and projects with the vision “Health for all Filipinos.” 76. Which of the following is the mission of the DOH? a. promote healthy lifestyle b. ensure accessibility and quality of health care c. reduce morbidity and moratality d. improve general status of the people 77. Which of the following is not a basic principle in the achievement of improved health? a. Health and nutrition as priorities g. b. Universal access to health services h. c. Enhancement of performance on health sector i. d. Funding from non-government organization 78. Which of the following is not the primary strategy to achieve health goals? j. a. Support of local health system k. b. Development of national standard for health l. c. Assurance of health care for all m. d. Funding from non-government organization 79. The dental health program of the DOH has committed to contribute to the improvement of the quality of life of Filipinos through its project “Sang Milyong Sepilyo” for which strategy? n. a. Operation research study o. b. Social mobilization p. c. Partnership with other sectors q. d. Capability building and value formation 80. The Sentrong Sigla Movement” is the joint program of the DOH and the local government levels, what is the aim of this movement? r. a. Promote quality of health services s. b. Certification and recognition programs t. c. Benefits for local execution and health workers u. d. Better and more effective collaboration v. w. Situation: Many changes in the DOH happened since 1901. In 1975, the DOH National Health Plan reviewed the health system. 81. What was implemented after the restructuring of the DOH? a. Philippine Heart Center of Asia c. Tertiary Hospitals b. Alma Ata Restructuring of WHO Review for the Philippine Nurses Licensure Examination (PNLE) – Intensive Drills|| 24

d.

82. 83. 84.

85.

Restructured Health Care Delivery System Why was there devolution? a. To bring services near to people c. To become self reliant b. To empower local participants d. To stop funding from national funds Dr. Winslow defines public health as science and art of preventing disease. What is art in the public health? a. Leadership skills on the nurse c. Creativity in making health programs b. Organizing people to participate d. Team building in group work Hanlon stresses that public health is dedicated to common attainment of highest level of physical health, mental, and social well being. What is the concise definition? a. Emotional quotient b. Total well-being c. Focus on physical illness d. Fragmented health In community health, assessment of the client requires multidisciplinary approach. Who is the team leader of the group? a. Nursing students b. Doctor c. Trained healer d. Nurse

86. 87. Situation: Family Planning, EPI 86. The following statements refer to the family planning program except; a. Policy program advocates partnership, participation and promotion of health. b. The main aim of the program is birth control. c. The program is anchored on safe motherhood and child survival. d. Females may decide independently on contraceptive method. 87. Which of the following statements is correct? a. Effectiveness on sterility will come after 25 to 40 days after vasectomy. b. Multiparous women have high fertility post IUD removal. c. Pills are advisable to those who have occasional sex. d. Condoms can be reused. 88. Life-long immunity for tetanus is achieved by a woman after a. 3 pregnancies c. 3 booster doses b. 2 doses during pregnancies d. Fourth tetanus toxoid 89. DPT is given at a. 0.05 ml, ID c. 0.5 ml, SQ b. 0.5 ml, IM d. 0.1 ml, ID

90. The seven EPI diseases are scheduled for immunization to provide immunity during which one of these infants’ age? a. After the child’s first birthday b. Newborn to six months c. Before the child’s birthday d. Six months to one year Situation: Expanded Program on Immunization 91. All these diseases may be contracted through the droplet infection, EXCEPT a. Diphtheria c. Pertussis b. Measles d. Poliomyelitis 92. 92. A fully immunized child is one who has received the following: i. BCG ii. DTP iii. Measles vaccine iv. OPV v. TT vi. Hepatitis syndrome a. 1,2,3 and 4 c. 3,4,5 and 6 b. 2,3,4 and 5 d. All of the above 93. This vaccine is given by mouth: a. OPV c. TT b. BCG d. DTP 94. The following are target populations of the EPI, EXCEPT a. Infants c. School entrants b. Pregnant women d. Adolescents 95. A woman is considered to have a lifetime immunity against tetanus after which dose? a. Second dose c. Fourth dose b. Third dose d. Fifth dose 96. What is the eligible age for giving immunizations? a. Before the child turns one year old b. Before the child reaches three years old c. Before the child reaches six years old d. Any age 97. Vaccines against these diseases normally result in fever within the first 24 hours, EXCEPT a. Diphtheria c. Tetanus b. Measles d. Whooping cough 98. The following are contraindications to giving vaccines, EXCEPT Review for the Philippine Nurses Licensure Examination (PNLE) – Intensive Drills|| 25

a. Convulsions c. Malnutrition b. Fever of 39⁰C d. Dehydration 99. The following vaccines are given three times in a year, EXCEPT a. Hepatitis B c. DPT b. OPV d. Measles 100. Which of the following is a common side effect of BCG? a. Koch’s phenomenon c. Indolent ulceration b. Deep abscess at vaccination site d. Lymph node enlargement 101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110. 111. 112. 113. 114. 115. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120. 121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130. 131. 132. 133. 134. 135. 136. Set 5 137. 1. The following vaccines are administered intramuscularly, EXCEPT a. DPT c. Anti-hepatitis B vaccine b. BCG d. All of the above 2. When is the earliest time for the administration of an anti-measles in case there is an epidemic in a locality? a. 3 months c. 9 months b. 6 months d. anytime, since there is danger of cross 138. infection 3. Among newborns, tetanus may be transmitted through a. Puncture wounds b. Improper handling of cord stump c. Improperly cleaned baby bottle d. Dirty water 4. This disease is characterized by a pseudomembrane in the upper respiratory tract: a. Pulmonary tuberculosis c. Pertussis b. Diphtheria d. Measles 5. The following immunizations may be administered by giving a 0.5ml of the vaccine, EXCEPT a. BCG c. Anti-measles vaccine b. DPT d. Anti-hepatitis B vaccine 139. 140. Situation: There are other important basic knowledge in the performance of our task as Community Health Nurse in relation to immunization. These include; 6. The correct temperature to store vaccines in a refrigerator is; a. Between +2 deg C and +8 deg C c. Between -8 deg C and 0 deg C b. Between -4 deg C and +8 deg C d. Between -8 deg C and +4 deg C 7. Which of the following vaccines is not done by intramuscular (IM) injection? a. Measles vaccine c. Tetanus toxoids b. Hepa-B vaccine d. DPT 8. Which of the following dose of tetanus toxoid is given to the mother to protect her infant from neonatal tetanus and likewise provides 10 years protection for the mother? Review for the Philippine Nurses Licensure Examination (PNLE) – Intensive Drills|| 26

a. Tetanus toxoid 1 c. Tetanus toxoid 3 b. Tetanus toxoid 2 d. Tetanus toxoid 4 9. Which of the following conditions is not true about contraindication to immunization? a. Do not give BCG if the child has known AIDS. b. Do not give BCG if the child has known hepatitis. c. Do not give DPT2 and DPT3 to a child who has had convulsions within 3 days of DPT d. Do not give DPT to a child who has recurrent convulsions on active neurologic disease. 10. Which of the following statements about immunization is not true? a. A child with diarrhea who is due for OPV should receive the OPV and make extra dose in the next visit. b. A child should be immunized in the health center before referral. c. There is no contraindication to immunization if the child is well enough to go home. d. There is no contraindication to immunization if the child is well enough to go home and if the child should be immunized in the health center before referral are both correct. 11. 12. Situation: Immunization schedule is to be used in order to provide maximum immunity to the seven EPI diseases before the child reaches one year. 11. This refers to the body resistance which pertains to the protein present in the serum of blood. a. Antitoxin c. Antigen b. Allergen d. Antibody 12. Which of the following vaccines is given at birth? a. DNA c. BCG b. OPV d. DPT 13. Which one of the following is the main principle of the expanded program on immunization? a. The program is based on epidemiological situation. b. Routine immunization schedule must be enforced. c. Its objective which is reduction of morbidity and mortality d. The legal basis and existing policies 14. Earlier schedule of measles vaccine given at 9 months gives what percentage of protection? a. 95% c. Lifetime b. 100% d. 85% e. f. Situation: Nurse E has been trained for newborn screening in Manila. As a competent nurse, Nurse E complies with the Newborn Screening Act of 2004. 15. The law that provides a mandate for newborn screening is which of the following? a. RA 9288 c. RA 7600 b. RA 8976 d. RA 7719 16. When is newborn screening done? a. Within 14 days c. After 24 hours, not later than 3 days b. After 72 hours or 3 days d. Within 7 days 17. Why should the baby’s heel be not squeezed? a. To prevent incorrect results b. To prevent hemolysis and incorporation of tissue fluid c. To prevent incorporation of tissue fluid d. To prevent hemolysis 18. Nurse E has to activate blood circulation. This is done by; a. Applying warm towel on the foot c. Warming the foot gently b. Applying moist compress on the foot d. Warming the foot with hot water bag 19. Newborn screening is used to detect the following metabolic disorders except; a. Congenital hyperthyroidism b. Congenital hyperplasia c. Galactosemia d. G6PD e. f. Situation: Gerald is 12 years old. He was immunized when he entered school. Now, he is at the doctor’s office with measles. 20. What caused the measles of Gerald, a 12 year old boy now? a. Primary vaccine failure c. Material and antibiotics b. Weaning of the vaccine d. High tittered vaccine 21. Measles vaccine is stored at the refrigerator temperature of 35 degrees Celsius to 45 degrees Celsius and must be kept from light, how long should the vaccine be exposed after which it is to be discarded? a. 240 minutes c. 12 hours b. 8 hours d. 6 hours 22. Which among the nursing responsibilities should a nurse do to control patient contact and environment at once? a. Report to local authority c. Inject attenuated vaccine b. Disinfect all bottles d. Immunize with live vaccine 23. In institutional outbreak and depending on administration policy, what is the best thing to do? a. Inject Ig measles c. Ask everyone to contribute b. Immunize everyone d. Report to DOH for free vaccine 24. Immunization of contact is a control measure. How many hours of exposure to the disease could you give the vaccine? a. 24 b. 36 c. 72 d. 48

e. f. Situation: Control of Diarrheal Diseases. 25. Two main dangers of diarrhea are dehydration leading to death and undernutrition. These are most often caused by a. Loss of appetite of the person with diarrhea Review for the Philippine Nurses Licensure Examination (PNLE) – Intensive Drills|| 27

b. Loss of large amount of water and salt from the body c. Toxins poisoning the bloodstream d. Loss of blood volume in bloody diarrhea 26. The following are at risk for diarrhea: i. Infants taking infant formulas ii. Young children who are teething iii. Breastfed children iv. Children in communities with no potable water supply g. a. All except 2 c. All except 4 b. All except 3 d. All of the above 27. Basic diarrhea prevention include i. Breastfeeding ii. Infant immunization against measles iii. Use of latrine iv. Freshly prepared food v. Clean drinking water vi. Handwashing h. a. All except 2 c. All except 4 b. All except 3 d. All of the above 28. Diarrhea can cause undernutrition among children because i. Nutrients are lost from the body in diarrhea ii. Nutrients are used to repair damaged tissue rather than from growth iii. A child with diarrhea may not feel hungry iv. Mothers may not feed their children normally because of fear of making the diarrhea worse. i. a. All except 2 c. All except 4 b. All except 3 d. All of the above 29. Children with the following signs are suffering from SEVERE dehydration i. Sunken and dry eyes; tears absent ii. Child drinks eagerly but is still thirsty iii. Restless and irritable iv. Poor skin turgor v. Mouth and tongue are dry vi. Drowsy and looks floppy j. a. 1, 4 and 6 c. 4, 5 and 6 b. 1, 3 and 5 d. All of these 30. The three rules for treating diarrhea at home are the following, EXCEPT a. Prevent dehydration- giver cereal gruel, ORS b. Prevent undernutrition- breastfed or give usual milk, cereal, fruit juice c. Stop diarrhea- give antidiarrheal medications, antibiotics d. Consult health worker if the following develops- repeated vomiting, fever, blood in the stool 31. When teaching a mother to give oral rehydration solution to her child, the following are taken into consideration i. Give more when the child wants more ORS than what was given ii. Immediately give ORS when the child vomited iii. Give a teaspoonful of ORS every 1-2 minutes for a child under 2 years iv. For an older child, more frequent ORS sips from a cup may be given k. a. 2, 3 and 4 b. 1,3 and 4 c. 1,2 and 4 d. All of the above l. m. Situation 4: National Tuberculosis Program 32. This refers to the comprehensive strategy which primary health services use to detect and cure TB patients: a. Directly Observed Treatment Short-Course Therapy b. Management of pulmonary patients c. Essential chemotherapy d. Integrated disease control of TB 33. TB symptomatic exhibit the following signs and symptoms: i. Cough for 2 weeks or more ii. Afternoon/ night fever iii. Chest pain iv. Unexplained weight loss v. Blood in the sputum vi. Enlarged lymph node n. a. 1 to 5 b. 2 to 6 c. 3 to 6 d. All of the above 34. Short course chemotherapy for 6 months given to those with i. Sputum smear positive cases ii. TB relapse iii. (-) sputum smear iv. (+) extensive lung lesion Review for the Philippine Nurses Licensure Examination (PNLE) – Intensive Drills|| 28

v. (+) radiographic lung lesion vi. Extrapulmonary cases 35. a. All of these b. 1,2,3 and 4 c. 1,2,4 and 6 d. 1,4,5 and 6 36. What is the purpose of the SCC-MDT for tuberculosis patients? a. To reduce the stigma attached to the tuberculosis b. To eradicate and completely prevent the relapse of the disease c. To emphasize the importance of sustained therapy d. To prevent the development of tuberculosis 37. Ms. May Sayad is a public health nurse manning the local health center in your locality. She was conducting a review of the NTP records when she noticed that majority of the NTP enrollees were walk-in patients from the barangay who presented signs of PTB. As you know, this type of case finding is called a. Walk-in case finding c. Passive case finding b. Active case finding d. Individual case finding 38. Lolo Oben is a patient from Sitio Kikilo who submitted 3 sputum specimens to you. Upon sputum microscopy, you learned that two of his sputum samples are positive for acid-fast bacilli. As you know, a patient with at least two sputum specimens positive for AFB by microscopy , with or without radiographic abnormalities consistent with PTB is known as a a. Pulmonary smear c. Doubtful PTB case positive case d. Extrapulmonary b. Pulmonary smear tuberculosis case negative case 39. Collection of the sputum specimens for microscopic study should be done within a. 12 hours c. 36 hours b. 24 hours d. 48 hours 40. Category 1 for the treatment of PTB include the following medications EXCEPT a. Rifampicin c. Pyrazinamide b. Isoniazid d. Streptomycin 41. 42. Situation: Tuberculosis, a primary respiratory disease is common among malnourished individuals living in crowded places. The Department of Health survey of 1997 reveals that there are 600,000 actively spreading the disease and 16 million Filipinos are afflicted. 43. The bacteria producing the disease is: a. Mycobacterium bovis c. Mycobacterium africanum b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis d. Mycobacterium leprae 44. Which of the following is the mode of transmission of pulmonary tuberculosis? a. Ingested food c. Airborne droplet b. Skin contact d. Used utensils 45. Which vaccine is a preventive measure during infancy and grade school entrants? a. BCG c. DPT b. Tuberculosis d. OPV 46. Which of the following topics is considered in your health teaching in cases of communicable diseases? a. Prevalence of diseases in community c. Mode of spread and control measures b. Annual risk of infection d. Mortality rate among adults and infants 47. Which of the following comprehensive strategies is used to detect and cure tuberculosis? a. Category and treatment regimen b. Case finding and maintenance c. Direct observed treatment for short course d. Strengthen national TB control program 48. 49. Situation: The burden of infectious diseases in our country is still heavy, as announced by the Department of Health. One of the leading causes of morbidity is still Pulmonary Tuberculosis. 45. Tuberculosis is primarily a respiratory disease caused by tubercle bacilli. Which mode of transmission is extremely contagious? a. Ingestion of food c. Animal handling b. Airborne d. Skin contact 46. Which of the following should a nurse do to detect prevalence of PTB? a. Blood smear c. Skin scrapping b. Organ biopsy d. PPD testing 47. Which of the following is the priority objective in PTB control? a. Sputum treatment c. BCG immunization b. Reduction of risk d. Identification of positive cases 48. As a nurse, which of the following basic preventive action is done to eradicate PTB? a. Health teachings c. Distribution of medicine b. Improvement of social condition d. Referral to health centers 49. When an older person is affected with PTB, which of the following measures will you advise to effectively prevent the spread of the diseases to the other members of the family? a. Cover mouth and nose when coughing c. X-ray members of the family and sneezing d. Continue taking medication b. Isolate the person 50. A garment factory does not have an occupational nurse. Who shall provide the occupational health needs of factory workers? a. Occupational health nurse at the Provincial Health Office Review for the Philippine Nurses Licensure Examination (PNLE) – Intensive Drills|| 29

b. Physician employed by the factory c. Public Health Nurse of the RHU of their municipality d. Rural Sanitary Inspector of the RHU of their municipality 51. Public health service are given free of charge. Is this statement true or false? a. The statement is true; it is the responsibility of the government to provide these services. b. The statement is false; people pay indirectly for public health services. c. The statement may be true or false; depending on the specific service required. d. The statement may be true or false; depending on policies of the government concerned. 52. According to C.E Winslow, which of the following is the goal of Public Health? a. For people to attain their birthrights and longevity b. For promotion of health and prevention of diseases c. For people to have access to basic health services d. For people to be organized in their health efforts

53. 53. The three major micronutrient deficiencies emphasized by the WHO are the following: i. Vitamin A deficiency ii. Vitamin E deficiency iii. Iron deficiency anemia iv. Iodine deficiency disorder v. Vitamin B deficiency vi. Protein-energy malnutrition 54. a. 1, 2 and 4 55. c. 2,3 and 4 b. 1,3 and 4 56. d. 1,3 and 6 54. Food fortification involves the addition of a micronutrient deficient in the diet to the following i. Soy sauce ii. Catsup iii. Salt iv. Margarine v. MSG vi. Noodles 55. a. All except 6 c. 3 and 5 56. b. 2, 4 and 6 d. All of the above 57. The term used to described all the eye signs of Vitamin A deficiency is a. Bigot’s spot c. Xeropthalmia b. Kwashiorkor d. Opthalmia neonatorum 58. The following are examples of macronutrients i. Fats ii. Minerals iii. Vitamins iv. Proteins v. Carbohydrates vi. Calories 59. a. 1, 2 and 3 c. 1, 4 and 5 60. b. 2, 5 and 6 d. 2, 3 and 4 61. A chemical element used by the thyroid gland to produce hormones that help regulate bodily mechanism: a. Iodine c. Potassium b. Iron d. Zinc 62. Also known as protein malnutrition a. Keratomalacia c. Marasmus b. Xeropthalmia d. Kwashiorkor 63. A type of PEM that afflicts an older child when the next baby is born: a. Keratomalacia c. Marasmus b. Xeropthalmia d. Kwashiorkor 64. The following are some of the best sources of Vitamin A, EXCEPT a. Malunggay c. Wheat bread b. Breastmilk d. Eggs 65. The best source of Iodine are a. Meat products c. Yellow vegetables b. Green leafy vegetables d. Seafoods 66. Iodine deficiency disorders may result in the following EXCEPT a. Goiter c. Mental retardation b. Stillbirth d. Blindness 67. 68. Situation : Malaria and Dengue Control Program 69. The characteristics of the mosquito vector that causes Malaria are an important consideration in disease prevention. Its characteristics include the following: i. It is a female mosquito ii. It is an Anopheles mosquito iii. It is day biting iv. It lives in slow-flowing, fresh steams v. It is called Aedes Aegypti vi. It is night biting 70. a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 c. 1, 3, 4 and 5 71. b. 1, 2, 4 and 6 d. All of the above Review for the Philippine Nurses Licensure Examination (PNLE) – Intensive Drills|| 30

72. Preventive measures for malaria include i. Chemoprophylaxis with Chloroquine ii. Insecticide treatment of mosquito nets iii. House spraying with an insecticide iv. Cutting of vegetation overhanging along steam banks v. On stream seeding with larvivorous fish vi. Mosquito-eating frog propagation 73. a. 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 c. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 b. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6 d. All of the above 74. The most important preventive measure for travelers going to Malaria-endemic areas include a. Use of insecticide treated mosquito nets b. Chemoprophylaxis with chloroquine c. Avoidance of swimming in streams d. Environmental spraying with insecticide 75. Plasmodium, the parasite causing Malaria, is a a. Virus c. Amoeba b. Bacteria d. Protozoa 76. The Malaria parasites primarily invade and destroy the _________, thus causing its characteristic sign and symptoms of fever, chills, anemia, malaise and others. a. RBC c. Neutrophils b. WBC d. Blood Plasma 77. The characteristics of the mosquito vector that causes dengue hemorrhagic fever is an important consideration in disease prevention. Its characteristics include the following: i. It is a female mosquito ii. It is an anopheles mosquito iii. It is day biting iv. It lay eggs in clear water containers v. It is called Aedes aegypti vi. It is night biting a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 c. 1, 3, 4 and 5 b. 1, 2, 4 and 6 d. All of the above 78. The diagnostic test for dengue hemorrhagic fever that is easily done by public health nurses at the health center is the a. Blood smear c. Complete blood count b. Tourniquet test d. Hemoglobin count 79. Methods of prevention and control for dengue include i. Destroying breeding places of mosquito such as rubber ties and empty cans ii. Keeping water containers inside the house covered iii. Changing the water of flower vases once a week iv. Scrubbing the side of vases and water containers v. Residual spraying with insecticides vi. Avoid hanging too many clothes inside the house 80. a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 c. 1, 3, 4 and 5 b. 1, 2, 3 and 6 d. All of the above 81. Treatment of Dengue include the following EXCEPT a. Replacement of body fluids by giving ORS or IV fluids b. Treatment of fever by giving Aspirin c. Bed rest to promote recovery d. Treatment of headache by giving Paracetamol 82. Malaria and Dengue are a. Endemic in the Philippines b. Diseases associated with poverty c. Diseases that are difficult to prevent and control d. Caused by viruses 83. 84. Situation: Lani, a 12-year old girl was told by her mother to clean the backyard and burn the leaves of the jackfruit tree. After 4 days, Lani manifested petechial hemorrhage with slight fever. She is brought to the Rural Health Unit. 85. Upon seeing Lani, which of the following questions should the nurse ask her to obtain history of her illness? a. “Why did you not show your mother your skin patches right away?” b. “Don’t you have a maid to clean your backyard?” c. “Do you have a communicable disease?” d. “Were you bitten by mosquitoes when you were cleaning your yard?” 86. What is the immediate source of infection of Lani, diagnosed with dengue fever? a. Vector mosquito Aedes Aegypti c. Common houselies b. Rodents and insects d. Cockroaches and fleas 87. Which of the following is immediately done to test the presence of Dengue fever on Lani? a. ELISA c. Blood count b. Rumpel Leads d. Platelet count 88. The best measure to control spread of hemorrhagic fever is to: a. Avoid hanging clothes in the backyard b. Keep water container covered c. Spray insecticide weekly d. Eliminate vector’s breeding places e. Review for the Philippine Nurses Licensure Examination (PNLE) – Intensive Drills|| 31

f.

Situation: Endemic malaria occurs in the tropic and subtropic areas where socio-economic condition is very poor.

g. 77. Which among the infectious agents of malaria is most serious to affect man? a. Plasmodium brasilanum c. Plasmodium vivax b. Plasmodium malariae d. Plasmodium falciparum 78. During your assessment, which among the signs and symptoms need referral to the secondary or tertiary care facility? a. Sweating and headache d. Fever and chill b. Icterus and shock e. Renal or liver failure 79. The mode of transmission of this disease is through the bite of an infected female mosquito. What do you call this female aggressive mosquito? a. Aminophylline d. Anopheline b. Spirozoites e. Hepatocytes 80. Laboratory confirmation of malaria is done in blood film. What do you expect to see in the film? a. Antibodies d. Malarial purinates b. Malarial parasites e. Antigen 81. What drug of choice is ordered for malaria? a. Chloroquine d. Phosphate b. Primaquine e. Sulfates f.

g. h. Situation: Acute Respiratory Infection 82. The following are signs to look for in a 1 month old child with possible Pneumonia i. Fast breathing ii. Severe undernutrition iii. Chest indrawing iv. Convulsions v. Low body temperature vi. Wheezing i. a. 1 and 2 c. 1 and 4 1. 1 and 3 d. 1 and 5 83. A three-month-old child has fast breathing if his respiratory rate is all of the following, EXCEPT: a. 39 breaths per minute c. 60 breaths per minute b. 54 breaths per minute d. 63 breaths per minute 84. IMCI stands for a. Illness Management of Children’s Inadequacies b. Integrated Management of Children’s Infections c. Integrated Management of Chronic Infections d. Integrated Management of Childhood Illness 85. This sign refers to a continuous high pitched inspiratory sound similar to a whistling sound: a. Wheezing c. Rales b. Stridor d. Breath sounds 86. This is always given as a remedy to a child with pneumonia: a. Paracetamol b. Oresol c. Salbutamol d. Antibiotic 87. A three-year-old child has a normal rate of breathing if his respiratory rate is a. 19 breaths per minute b. 39 breaths per minute c. 54 breaths per minute d. 63 breaths per minute 88. Home care for a child aged less than two months with severe ARI include all of the following i. Breastfeeding ii. Give antibiotics iii. Keep the child warm iv. Clearing the nose of secretions v. Provide intravenous solution vi. Give solid foods to the child b.a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 c. All except 3 b. 2, 3, 4 d. All except 5 and 5 89. A seven-month-old baby has normal breathing if his respiratory rate is a. 21 breaths per minute b. 45 breaths per minute c. 57 breaths per minute d. 64 breaths per minute a. b.

Situation: Josie, 4 years old, is brought to the Rural Health Unit for cough, fever and rashes. The doctor diagnosed her as measles. 90. Which of the following should you do first? a. Perform a procedure c. Assess the patient b. Plan for your care regimen d. Identify diagnosis 91. You found whitish, grayish pecks in the inner surface of Josie’s cheeks. Which of the following refer to these? a. Morhili eruption c. Scarlet marks b. Koplik spots d. Strawberry tongue 92. Which of the following procedure should you teach Josie’s sister when Josie has fever at home? a. Proper positioning b. Hot sitz bath Review for the Philippine Nurses Licensure Examination (PNLE) – Intensive Drills|| 32

c. Isolation technique d. Tepid sponge bath 93. Which of the following complication should be watched? a. Meningitis c. Otitis media b. Pneumonia d. Laryngitis 94. Which of the following consideration would be rendered to avoid complication of pneumonia? a. Protect eyes from glare of sunlight b. Correct technique of sponge bath c. Ventilated room but free from drafts d. Check prescribed medications faithfully 95. 96. Situation: One of the leading causes of morbidity and mortality are pulmonary infections. Acute respiratory infection (ARI) could be managed at home, given the proper protocol. 97. 95. Which of the following should you include in the health teachings given to mothers to prevent ARI? a. Wash hands after using the toilet c. Avoid droplet infection b. Avoid smoking in the home d. Consult the doctor regularly 96. In adults with pneumonia or ARI in the home, which drug must be available at the RHU based on the standard management? a. Chloramphenicol c. Cotrimoxazole b. Oxygen tanks d. Injectable gentamycin 97. In far flung areas, who could dispense ARI standard orders in case of pneumonia in children? a. Sanitarian c. Nurse b. Midwife d. Barangay health worker 98. During home visit, you assessed the child with ARI. Which of the following signs indicate immediate medical attention? a. Inability to drink c. Temperature is 37.7 deg C b. Restlessness d. Poor appetite 99. Which of the following is not included in the prevention of acute respiratory infection? a. Measles immunization b. Avoid smoking c. Breast feeding d. Good ventilation

100.

Magnitude of the problem is defined as ____________. a. The severity of the problem that can be measured in terms of the proportion of the population affected by the problem b. Classification of the problem as health status, health resource or health related problem c. The probability of reducing, controlling or eradicating the problem d. The probability of controlling or reducing the effects posed by the problem e.

f. g. h. Set 6 i. j. Situation: Nurse Cita is preparing for a home visit to her Type II diabetic patient, Mang Jose. 1. Nurse Cita knows very well that all of the following are risk factors for diabetes, EXCEPT a. Obesity b. Age > 35 years c. Hypertension d. HDL cholesterol level < 35 mg/dl 2. Mang Jose informed Nurse Cita that he has been reading a lot about the different types of diabetes because he wanted to make sure that he understood the disease well. Which of the following verbalized statements of Mang Jose is NOT CORRECT a. Type I diabetes is also known as juvenile-onset diabetes b. Type II diabetic patients will never need insulin to preserve life c. Type I diabetic patients need insulin to preserve life d. Type II diabetes is also known as maturity-onset diabetes. 3. 4. Nurse Cita wanted to correct Mang Jose’s misconception regarding diabetes. Which among the following also needs to be corrected? a. Diabetes is a serious chronic cardiovascular disease characterized by an increase in blood sugar levels. b. Diabetes occurs when insulin is not adequately produced by the pancreas. c. Diabetes also happens when the body cannot properly use insulin. d. Diabetes mellitus is characterized by hyperglycemia. 5. All of the following are included in the criteria for the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus, EXCEPT a. Symptoms of diabetes plus casual fasting glucose concentration greater than or equal to 200mg/dl. b. Two-hour post load glucose greater than or equal to 200 mg/dl during an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT). c. Fasting plasma glucose greater than or equal t 126 mg/dl d. Symptoms of Diabetes plus casual plasma glucose concentration greater than or equal to 200mg/dl 6. Nurse Cita started talking about the five components of diabetes management. These include the following except a. Pharmacologic therapy b. Nutrition Management c. Exercise d. Reduced smoking Review for the Philippine Nurses Licensure Examination (PNLE) – Intensive Drills|| 33

7. Diet and weight control constitute the foundation of diabetes management. Which among the following should NOT BE INCLUDED among the things that Nurse Cita should discuss with Mang Jose? a. Avoid simple sugars like cakes and chocolates. b. Consume complex carbohydrates like rice, pasta, cereals and fresh fruits. c. Eat more fiber-rich foods like vegetables. d. Balance salt and sugar intake. 8. Exercise lowers blood glucose by increasing the uptake of glucose by body muscles and by improving insulin utilization. Which among the following should be included in the general precautions for diabetic patients during exercise? a. Use protective devices such as rubber boots to avoid injury to the foot. b. Exercise only during cold weather to promote comfort. c. Always carry quick sugar sources like candy or softdrink to avoid hypoglycemia. d. Inspect feet daily for callous after exercise. 9. 10. Situation: Tetanus is an acute disease induced by toxin of tetanus bacilli growing anaerobically in wounds and at the site of umbilicus among newborn of infants, characterized by muscular contraction. 8. Little Ana, 2 weeks old, was brought to you at RHU by her mother due to fever and muscle twitching. Your first action is to: a. Blame the mother c. Report to health office b. Inspect the umbilical cord d. Check temperature manually 9. To gather data base with the help of little Ana’s mother, which step of nursing process would you do? a. Planning c. Evaluation b. Assessment d. Intervention 10. Mode of transmission in Tetanus Neonatorum is through contamination from varied sources like soil, dust or animal feces. Which one below would you teach the mother of little Ana? a. Boil the water before drinking c. Bring the baby to the health center everyday b. Use new diapers d. Wash hands before touching the cord 11. Method of control of Tetanus among infants is scheduled immunization of tetanus toxoid on: a. Parents of the baby b. Pregnant women c. Newborn babies d. Installation of bright light

d. e. Situation: James has been smoking 20 years now. When he visited the health center together with his wife, he saw a pamphlet on healthy lifestyle behavior. 12. All of the following are included in healthy lifestyle, EXCEPT a. Not smoking b. Having a regular exercise c. Eating a delicious diet everyday d. Weight control 13. Which of the following is the most accurate statement about the benefits of regular exercise? a. Improves the risk of developing high blood pressure b. Increases the risk of developing non-insulin dependent (Type II) Diabetes Mellitus c. Causes feelings of depression and anxiety d. Helps people achieve and maintain a healthy body weight 14. Smoking causes a. Coronary artery disease, heart disease, hardening of arteries and complication of blocked arteries, hypertension, blood clots b. Disease of the oral cavity and peptic ulcer disease c. COPD’s such as chronic bronchitis and emphysema d. All of the above 15. This term refers to directly smoking from a lighted cigarette or other tobacco products: a. Active smoking b. Passive smoking c. Mainstream smoking d. Second-hand smoking 16. This term refers to smoke exhaled by a smoker and inhaled by other people: a. Active smoke b. Passive smoke c. Mainstream stroke d. Second-hand smoke 17. A smoker like James is exposed to a. Mainstream smoke and side stream smoke b. Second-hand smoke and side stream smoke c. Mainstream smoke and second-hand smoke d. None of the above 18. Which of the following are benefits of quitting smoking? i. Within 20 minutes, the blood pressure and pulse rate drop to normal, the body temperature of the hands and feet returns to normal. ii. Within 8 hours, the carbon monoxide level in blood drops to normal and the oxygen level of the blood increases to normal. iii. Within 24 hours, the risk of a sudden heart attack decreases. iv. Within 48 hours, nerve endings begin to regenerate and a person’s ability to smell and taste returns to normal. v. Within 2 weeks to 3 months, blood circulation improves and lung function increases up to 30%. vi. Within 1-9 months, overall energy increases while coughing, nasal congestion, fatigue, and shortness of breath are markedly reduced. b. a. 1, 2 and 3 c. 3, 4 and 5 b. 2, 3 and 4 d. All of the above Review for the Philippine Nurses Licensure Examination (PNLE) – Intensive Drills|| 34

c. d. Situation: Lorena, a student nurse, is trying to prepare for a quiz on IMCI. 19. Lorena knows that all of the following are danger signs that require referral EXCEPT a. Child vomits everything b. Child is unable to sleep c. Convulsions d. Child is unconscious or lethargic 20. Generally speaking, a seriously ill child has a. All four of the danger signs c. Two to three of the danger signs b. Three to four of the danger signs d. One or more of the danger signs a. 21. After checking for general danger signs, Lorena knows that the health care provider must check for main symptoms. The IMCI clinical guidelines suggest checking for a. Cough or difficult breathing c. Fever b. Diarrhea d. All of the above 22. The key clinical signs are used to assess a sick child with cough or difficult breathing. This includes the respiratory rate, lower chest wall indrawing and stridor. Lower chest wall indrawing a. Distinguishes children who have pneumonia from those who do not b. Indicates severe pneumonia in children c. Indicates severe pneumonia and requires hospital admission of children d. Indicates pneumonia and requires home management of children 23. In case of diarrhea, Lorena knows that all children should be assessed for: a. Signs of dehydration b. The period the child has had diarrhea c. Blood in the stool to determine of the child has dysentery d. All of the above 24. When assessing for the elasticity of the skin, Lorena should perform this in the abdomen with the fold of the skin a. Horizontal to the child’s body d. In different directions with the child’s b. Vertical to the child’s body body c. Diagonal to the child’s body 25. A fluid deficit of ≥ 10 percent of the body weight is indicative of a. Severe dehydration c. Moderate dehydration b. Some dehydration d. No dehydration 26. Proper feeding is the most important aspect of treatment for children with diarrhea for 14 days or more or persistent diarrhea. The goals of nutritional therapy include a. Temporarily reduce the amount of animal/ reducing milk in the diet b. Providing a sufficient intake of energy, protein, vitamin sand minerals to facilitate the repair process in the damaged gut mucosa and improve nutritional status c. Ensuring adequate food intake during convalescence to correct any malnutrition d. All of the above 27. With regard to detection of acute or current measles, Lorena should know that this is based on fever with a generalized rash, plus a. Red eyes b. Runny nose c. Cough d. At least any of the following signs- red eyes, runny nose or cough 28. Urgent referral to a hospital is needed when a child with measles displays a. Lethargy plus severe stomatitis with deep and extensive mouth ulcers or severe eye complications, such as clouding of the cornea b. Pus draining from the eye or non-deep and non-extensive mouth ulcers c. Eye or mouth complications with pneumonia, diarrhea or ear infection d. A and D 29. For children with ear problems, which of the following clinical signs should be assessed? a. Ear discharge c. Both of these b. Ear pain d. Neither of these 30. Tender swelling behind the ear is indicative of a. Mastoiditis c. Chronic ear infection b. Acute ear infection d. No ear infection 31. Pre-referral treatments for children aged 2 months up to 5 years, include i. Approximate antibiotic ii. Quinine (for severe malaria) iii. Vitamin A iv. Prevention of hypoglycemia with breastmilk or sugar water v. Oral antimalarial vi. Paracetamol for high fever (38.5⁰ C or above) or pain vii. Tetracycline eye ointment (if with clouding of the cornea or pus draining from eye) viii. ORS solution so that the mother can give frequent sips on the way to the hospital 32. 33. 34. a. 1, 2, 3, 4 b. All except 5 a. 2, 3, 4, 5 c. All of the above 35. Lorena knows that Vitamin A helps resist measles virus infection in the eye as well as in the layer of cells that line the lung gut, mouth and throat that is why it is given to a child with measles or severe malnutrition. The first dose should be given to the child in the health center while the second dose should be given Review for the Philippine Nurses Licensure Examination (PNLE) – Intensive Drills|| 35

a. By the nurse at the health center, the next day b. To the mother, for her to give it to the child the next day at home c. By the nurse at the health center, the following week d. None since there is no second dose 36. All of the following cases need to be returned for follow-up at the health center, not later than 2 days EXCEPT a. Pneumonia c. Malaria, if fever persists b. Dysentery d. None of the above 37. All of the following cases need to be returned for follow-up at the health center not later than 5 days EXCEPT a. Persistent diarrhea c. Feeding problem b. Acute ear infection d. None of the above e. 38. For a child who is one week to 2 months old, the following condition requires breastfeeding assessment EXCEPT a. Child is taking multivitamins b. An infant has difficulty feeding c. Child is breastfed less than 8 times in 24 hours d. Child is taking other foods or drinks 39. Signs of good attachment include i. Child’s chin touching breast ii. Child’s mouth wide open iii. Child’s tongue protrudes in-between sucking iv. Child’s lower lip turned outward v. Child sucks with characteristic sound vi. More areola visible above tan below the mouth b. a. 1, 3, 5 and 6 d. 1, 2, 3, and 4 c. 1, 2, 4 and 6 e. All of the above 40. All of the following indicates that the child is sucking effectively, EXCEPT a. Slow sucking c. Sucking with some pausing b. Deep sucks d. None of the above 38. How would you classify a 36-month old child who has very low weight and some palmar pallor? a. Severe malnutrition and severe anemia c. Anemia and very low weight b. Severe anemia and very low weight d. Severe anemia 39. How would you classify a 30-month old child who has fever with malaria risk and measles present and there are no signs of severe classification and no blood smear taken? a. Fever no malaria c. Very severe febrile disease/malaria b. Fever malaria unlikely d. Malaria 40. How would you classify a 5 year old boy who has fever with malaria risk and no runny nose, no measles, no other cause of fever and no blood smear taken? a. Fever no malaria c. Very severe febrile disease/malaria b. Fever malaria unlikely d. Malaria 41. How would you classify a 36-month old child who has very low weight and severe palmar pallor? a. Severe anemia c. Severe malnutrition and severe anemia b. Severe anemia and very low weight d. Anemia and very low weight 42. How would you classify an 18-month old child who has visible severe wasting and severe palmar pallor? a. Severe malnutrition c. Very low weight b. Severe anemia d. Severe malnutrition and severe anemia 43. How would you classify a 9 month old child who has diarrhea for 3 days with blood in stool? The child is restless and irritable; no sunken eyes, drinks eagerly, thirsty and skin pinch goes back immediately? a. No dehydration c. No dehydration and dysentery b. Some dehydration and severe persistent d. Some dehydration and dysentery diarrhea 44. How would you classify an 11 month old child who has diarrhea for 14 days and with no blood in stool. The child is restless and irritable; no sunken eyes, drinks eagerly, thirsty and skin pinch goes back slowly. a. No dehydration and dysentery d. Some dehydration and severe b. Some dehydration and dysentery persistent diarrhea c. No dehydration 45. How would you classify a 12 month old child who has diarrhea for 2 days with no blood in the stool? The child is not abnormally sleepy or difficult to awaken; not restless and irritable; no sunken eyes, is able to drink but is not thirsty and skin pinch goes back immediately. a. No dehydration c. No dehydration and dysentery b. Some dehydration and severe persistent d. Some dehydration and dysentery diarrhea 46. How would you classify a 20-month old child who has an ear problem and no pus is seen draining from the ear and discharge is reported for 2 days. a. No ear infection c. Acute ear infection b. Chronic ear infection d. Mastoiditis 47. How would you classify a 20 month old child who has an ear problem and tender swelling behind the ear? a. No ear infection c. Acute ear infection b. Chronic ear infection d. Mastoiditis 48. How would you classify a 12 month old child who has signs suggesting measles and pus draining from the eye and no sign for severe classification? a. Measles c. Severe complicated measles b. Measles with mouth complications d. Measles with eye complications 49. How would you classify a 15 month old child who has an ear problem and has ear pain? a. Mastoiditis c. Chronic ear infection b. Acute ear infection d. No ear infection Review for the Philippine Nurses Licensure Examination (PNLE) – Intensive Drills|| 36

50. How would a. you Severe classify malnutrition a 9 month old child who has edema on both feet? c. Very low weight b. Severe anemia d. Anemia 51. How would you classify a 15 month old child who has signs suggesting measles and deep or extensive mouth ulcer? a. Measles c. Severe complicated measles b. Measles with eye complication d. Measles with eye complications 52. How would you classify a 12 month old child who has signs suggesting measles and pus draining from eye and no signs for the severe classification? a. Measles c. Severe complicated measles b. Measles with eye complications d. Measles with mouth complications 53. A yellow color in the IMCI chart signifies; a. Home management c. Treatment at the health center b. Urgent referral d. Emergency triage and treatment 54. In home management of a child with pneumonia, the caretaker is counselled on how not to; a. Give oral drugs c. When to return b. Treat local infection at home d. Discontinue feeding 55. In history taking and communicating with the caregiver, vital communication technique is emphasized. Which of the following will hinder effective communication? a. Asking the caregiver if she is giving an unsure answer b. Giving the caregiver time to answer the question c. Using words the caregiver understands d. Listening 56. Which of the following is not a danger sign? a. Convulsion c. Lethargy/unconsciousness b. Inability to drink or breastfed d. Difficulty breathing 57. A mother complains that her child has inability to drink or breastfed. The nurse verifies this evidence by asking; a. “The child may not be hungry that is why he is not drinking or feeding.” b. “Please tell me more about this.” c. “When did the child last ate?” d. “May I observe you while you are feeding the child?” 58. If the child has only one of the danger signs implicitly stated in the IMCI guideline, this child will be classified under what color? a. Pink c. Green b. Blue d. Yellow 59. Which vital sign is important in classifying a child with pneumonia from those who do not have? a. Temperature c. Chest indrawing b. Respiratory rate d. Stridor 60. Which of the following child has stridor and needs to be referred? a. Jolens, producing a wheezing noise when he breathes out b. Rodoraman, an agitated crying child exemplifying harsh noise during inhalation c. Bentot, an agitated crying child with a wheezing noise as he breathes out d. Dinggay, a calm child with harsh noise during inhalation 61. Lloyd was brought to the health center for check up and for his second shot of DPT. His respiratory rate is 40 bpm, without chest indrawing and absence of danger signs and symptoms. Lloyd is classified under; a. Very severe disease c. Pneumonia b. Severe pneumonia d. No pneumonia 62. If pneumonia is present with major danger signs and symptoms, treatment will include; a. Cotrimoxazole po BID c. ORS 240 cc every loose stool b. Amoxicillin po BID d. Procaine penicillin IM OD 63. Marites, a 5 year old child was brought to the health center with these signs and symptoms: skin pinch test at 1 second, drinks eagerly and is thirsty, irritable with sunken eyes. You would classify Marites as: a. Pink: Severe dehydration c. Green: No dehydration b. Red: Very severe dehydration d. Yellow: Some dehydration 64. Miguelito, a 33 lb child is brought by his father due to episodes of loose stools. If Miguelito already lost 1,500 ml of body fluids, he is classified under; a. Pink: Severe dehydration c. Green: No dehydration b. Red: Very severe dehydration d. Yellow: Some dehydration 65. A child with dysentery is to be suspected of which infectious microorganism? a. Salmonella c. Shigella b. Vibrio cholera d. E. coli 66. Measles death among children are most commonly caused by; a. LTB c. Bronchioectasis b. Encephalitis d. Pneumonia and laryngotracheitis 67. Dino, a 3 year old child, was brought to the health center because of fever. Axillary temperature is 37.6 degrees Celsius. Leah, the nurse tickles Dino’s foot and notices that there is a resistance when Dino flex his legs. Dino cried. Leah, using IMCI will classify Dino as: a. Pink: Very severe febrile disease c. Green: Uncomplicated fever b. Red: Severe febrile disease d. Yellow: Malaria 68. In a low malaria risk area, a child with fever of 38 degrees Celsius with complaints of runny nose is classified as; a. Pink: Very severe febrile disease c. Green: Uncomplicated fever b. Green: Fever - Malaria unlikely d. Yellow: Malaria 69. Denver was brought to the RHU because of measles, pus draining from his eyes and mouth ulcers. He has been classified by Dan, the PHN, as YELLOW: Measles with mouth and eye complications. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for Denver? 70. 1. Gentian violet to be coated on his cheeks 71. 2. Gentian violet for his mouth ulcers 72. 3. Tetracycline ointment for his eyes 73. 4. Aspirin for fever Review for the Philippine Nurses Licensure Examination (PNLE) – Intensive Drills|| 37

74.

75. 71. 72. 73. 74.

75. 76.

77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82.

83.

5. Vitamin A supplement a. 2,3,5 c. 1,3,5 b. 1,2,3,4,5 d. 1,2,3,5 Among the following, the most serious complication of an ear infection is; a. Hearing loss c. Pain b. Mastoiditis d. Deafness leading to learning problems Which of the following behavior best suggests that the child is experiencing ear pain? a. Frequent tugging of the ear c. Voracious appetite b. Sleepiness d. Irritability An ear infection of 15 days is classified as; a. Acute otitis media c. Mastoiditis b. Chronic otitis media d. Subacute otitis media In the treatment of dehydration, the commercially available IV fluid choice is which of the following? a. NSS c. 50% Dextrose in Water b. D5LR d. D5NSS Ernesto, a 4 year old child was brought to the outpatient facility, who manifests restlessness and irritability, sunken eyeball and poor skin turgor. He is classified by Nurse D.G. as Child B. the first four hours after assessment; DJ will give how many ml of ORS? a. 200-400 ml c. 700-900 ml b. 400-700 ml d. 900-1000 ml Agatha, a 5 year old child will be given how many ml of ORS for every loose/watery stool? a. 50-100 ml c. 200-500 ml b. 100-200 ml d. As tolerated A mother of a 3 year-old child complains that his son is negativistic and always says no. The mother asked the nurse why his son is always like that. The nurse is correct by responding; a. Your son is being spoiled and should be punished. b. Every time he acts that way, just ignore him. c. It’s quite normal for his age to act that way for it’s his way to search for independence. d. It is his way to explore the environment, it is best you encourage him to do that. The foundation of all psychosocial task is said to be; a. Love c. Caring b. Trust d. Self actualization According to Erikson, the psychosocial task of a toddler is; a. Industry vs. Inferiority c. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt b. Initiative vs. Guilt d. Trust vs. Mistrust The school age child is at the correct psychosocial task as he learns to develop which of the following? a. Try new things c. Create things b. Develop independence d. Start new things The parent of a child can best teach the child proper manners and conduct by; a. Modeling c. Religious teaching b. Schooling d. Positive reinforcement All the following are seen in a child with measles. Which one is not? a. Reddened eyes c. Pustule b. Coryza d. Cough The WHO stated the breastfeeding should be started within 30 minutes after normal birth. The nurse is observing the mother during breastfeeding. Which of the following observation shows that the baby latched optimally? a. The baby’s lower lip is turned inward and lower portion of the areola is more covered than the upper portion. b. The baby’s lower lip is turned outward and portion of the lower areola is more covered than the upper portion. c. The baby’s lower lip is turned outward and portion of the upper areola is more covered than the lower portion. d. The baby’s lower lip is turned inward and the upper portion of the areola is more covered than the lower portion. Breast milk, unlike ordinary milk contains which of the following? a. It contains more nutrients than ordinary milk. b. It has a higher protein, fat and carbohydrate content than ordinary milk. c. It contains antigens that boost the child’s immune system. d. It has maternal antibodies that protect the child from illnesses for a period of time.

83. 84. Situation: Attending to the needs of a pregnant woman, a woman in labor and assisting in childbirth are part of the community health nurse’s responsibilities. 84. Nurse Sheila is attending to women who came to the health center for prenatal check-up. Upon assessment, she noticed that her client, Aling Rosa, had pale palms and conjunctiva. She requested Aling Rosa to have her hemoglobin tested and explained that hemoglobin levels below this value is indicative of anemia. Which of these hemoglobin levels is Nurse Sheila referring to? a. < 7g/ dL c. < 9 g/ dL b.

What are the principles of Copar?

Which of the following best defines copar?

What are the 5 phases of Copar?

What is the role of community in copar?